AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE IV — December 2012

AIBE IV — December 2012 — Complete Questions with Answers

95 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 December 2012
1. Which classification of offences comes under Criminal Procedure Code?
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A Cognizable & non-cognizable
B Bailable & non-bailable
C Summons cases & warrant cases
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

CrPC classifies offences into three categories: cognizable/non-cognizable (S.2(c)/2(l)), bailable/non-bailable (S.2(a)), and summons/warrant cases (S.2(w)/2(x)). All three classifications are provided under the Code.

3. Non-cognizable offence has been defined-
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A Under section 2(a), Cr.P.C.
B Under section 2(e), Cr.P.C.
C Under section 2(f), Cr.P.C.
Under section 2(1), Cr.P.c.
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Non-cognizable offences are those where police cannot arrest without warrant or investigate without Magistrate's order. Section 155 CrPC governs the procedure — the complainant must approach the Magistrate who then directs investigation.

4. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right-
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A By the police officer
B By the court
Both by the police officer & the court
D Either (A) or (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, different Magistrates have different sentencing powers. CJM can pass up to 7 years, JMFC up to 3 years, JMSC up to 1 year. Sessions Judge can pass any sentence including death (subject to HC confirmation).

5. Complaint as provided under section 2(d) of Cr.P.C.-
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A Can be in writing only
B Can be oral
Either in writing or oral
D Can be by gestures
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 438 CrPC provides for anticipatory bail — pre-arrest protection. A person apprehending arrest in a non-bailable offence can apply to the Sessions Court or High Court for a direction that they shall be released on bail if arrested.

6. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest under-
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A Section 56 of Cr.P.C.
Section 57 of Cr.P.C.
C Section 58 of Cr.P.C.
D Section 59 of Cr.P.C.
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 41 CrPC specifies when police may arrest without warrant in cognizable cases. The 2009 amendment added S.41(1)(b) guidelines to prevent unnecessary arrests — the officer must record reasons and be satisfied arrest is necessary.

8. A refused to answer questions put to a witness under section 161 of Cr.P.C is an offence under-
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A Section 1761.P.C
Section 179 I.P.C
C Section 1871.P.C
D Neither (A) nor (B) nor (C)
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the IPC, offences are classified by severity: from petty offences (fine only) to the most serious (death penalty). Section 53 lists five types of punishment: death, life imprisonment, imprisonment (rigorous/simple), forfeiture, and fine.

9. The investigating officer during the investigation records the statements of a witness under-
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A Section 160 of Cr.P.C
B Section 162 of Cr.P.C
Section 161 of Cr.P.C
D Section 164 of Cr.P.C
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under IPC, 'theft' (S.378) requires: dishonest intention, movable property, moving out of possession, without consent. It differs from robbery (theft + force/fear), dacoity (robbery by 5+), and criminal misappropriation (dishonest conversion of property in possession).

10. A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C in writing during investigation and is signed by the person making the statement is hit by:
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A Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C
B Section 161(3) of Cr.P.C
Section 162(1) of Cr.P.C
D Section 162(2) of Cr.P.C
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under IPC, the right of private defence (S.96-106) allows reasonable force to protect person or property. It extends to causing death in extreme situations — apprehension of murder, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, or dangerous wrongful confinement.

11. Which of the following is relevant fact under Evidence Act, 1872?
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facts regarding motive
B facts regarding statement without related conduct
C facts regarding statements clubbed with conduct
D facts which make other relevant fact is highly probable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 300 defines when culpable homicide amounts to murder. The four clauses cover: intention to cause death, intention to cause bodily injury known to cause death, act so dangerous that death is nearly certain, and committing a dangerous act.

12. Test of competency of witness is:
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A Her being intelligent
B Must be major
C Understanding the nature of question
Capable of understanding the nature of question and giving rational answer
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under IPC, criminal conspiracy (S.120A) is the agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act. The mere agreement is sufficient — no overt act is required. This makes conspiracy an inchoate offence.

13. Which one is exception as rule of hearsay evidence?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
dying declaration
B facts forming part of same transaction
C facts forming plea of alibi
D facts regarding character of accuse
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 'evidence' (S.3) means: (1) oral evidence — statements by witnesses in court, and (2) documentary evidence — documents and electronic records produced for inspection. Together they form the complete evidentiary framework.

14. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication -
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A was made during marriage with promise of confidentiality
was made during marriage, even without promise of confidentiality
C was made before marriage with promise of confidentiality
D is made after marriage
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, confessions to police (S.25) are inadmissible. Confessions in police custody (S.26) are inadmissible unless before a Magistrate. But information leading to discovery of facts (S.27) is the important exception.

15. Leading questions can be asked even without permission of court during-
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A Examination-in-Chief
Cross-Examination
C Re-Examination
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, dying declarations (S.32(1)) are admissible as exceptions to hearsay. The statement must relate to cause of death or circumstances of the transaction resulting in death. No expectation of death is required.

16. What do you mean by word ‘evidence’?
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A Every fact connected with case
B Facts introduced in court of law
C Both
None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, burden of proof (S.101) lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given. The general principle: whoever asserts must prove. Presumptions can shift this burden.

17. What is fact in issue?
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A Facts involved indirectly
B Necessary facts to arrive or determine rights, liability or community
C Both
None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'admission' (S.17) is a statement suggesting inference about a fact in issue. Admissions are not conclusive (S.31) but may operate as estoppel. They are substantive evidence — usable even against the maker.

18. Relevant fact is?
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Facts logically relevant to any fact in issue
B Facts legally relevant to any fact in issue
C Both
D None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, a 'decree' (S.2(2)) is the formal expression of adjudication conclusively determining rights of parties in a suit. It can be preliminary, final, or partly both. An 'order' is any decision that is not a decree.

19. Which of the following is correct with regard to a standard form of contract?
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A It is valid contract
B The party has no choice but to accept and sign the contract
Both (A) and (B)
D The consent is not a free consent
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CPC, res judicata (S.11) bars relitigation of matters already decided between same parties in a competent court. Five conditions: same parties, same matter, competent court, decided on merits, final decision.

20. As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is
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V oid
B V oidable
C Valid
D Unlawful
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, Section 9 gives civil courts jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature unless barred. The presumption favours jurisdiction — exclusion must be express or clearly implied.

21. A contingent agreement based on an impossible event under section 36 of the Contract Act, 1872 is
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V oid
B V oidable
C V oid till impossible is known
D V oid when event becomes impossible
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, temporary injunction (Order XXXIX) preserves status quo pending final adjudication. Three requirements: prima facie case, balance of convenience, and irreparable injury. All three must be satisfied.

22. The consensus ad-idem means
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A General consensus
B Reaching an agreement
Meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CPC, appeals from original decrees lie under Section 96. Second appeal to HC only on substantial questions of law (S.100). Appeals from orders under S.104. The right to appeal is statutory, not inherent.

23. In famous Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke-Ball Co. (1893) 1 QBD 256, the Hon’ble Court held that the Contract was accepted on being-
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A Communicated
Acted upon
C Refused
D Advertised
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, execution of decrees (Order XXI) allows enforcement of court orders. Methods include: attachment and sale of property, arrest and detention, delivery of specific property, and appointment of receiver.

24. Inadequacy of consideration does not make the contract-
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V oid
B V oidable
C Unenforceable
D Neither void nor voidable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, a valid contract requires: offer and acceptance, intention to create legal relations, lawful consideration, capacity of parties, free consent, and lawful object. Missing any element makes it void/voidable.

25. A jus in personam means a right against-
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A specific person
B The public at large
C A specific thing
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Contract Act, 'consideration' (S.2(d)) is the price for a promise. In Indian law, it can be past, present, or future, and can move from the promisee or any other person — broader than English law.

26. Exposure of goods by a shopkeeper is-
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A Offer for Sale
Invitation to Offer
C Offer
D Acceptance
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Contract Act, consent is 'free' when not caused by coercion (S.15), undue influence (S.16), fraud (S.17), misrepresentation (S.18), or mistake (S.20-22). Unfree consent makes the contract voidable.

27. An agreement to remain unmarried is-
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A Valid
V oid
C V oidable
D Unenforceable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'sale' (S.54) transfers ownership for price. For immovable property worth Rs.100+, a registered instrument is mandatory. Delivery of possession completes the transfer.

28. An agreement enforceable at law is-
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A Enforceable acceptance
B Accepted offer
C Approved promise
Contract
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the TPA, 'mortgage' (S.58) transfers interest in immovable property to secure a loan. Six types: simple, by conditional sale, usufructuary, English, equitable (title deed deposit), and anomalous.

29. An agreement shall be void for-
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A Mistake of fact by one party
Mistake of fact by both the parties
C Mistake of foreign law
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, Section 138 makes cheque dishonour a criminal offence. Requirements: cheque for legally enforceable debt, dishonoured for insufficient funds, demand notice within 30 days, failure to pay within 15 days.

30. Void agreement signifies
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A Agreement illegal in nature
Agreement not enforceable by law
C Agreement violating legal procedure
D Agreement against public policy
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, conditions for valid marriage (S.5): no living spouse, mental fitness, minimum age (21/18), not within prohibited degrees, not sapindas — unless custom permits the last two.

31. A proposal when accepted becomes-
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Promise under section 2(b), Contract Act
B Agreement under section 2( e), Contract Act
C Contract under section 2(h), Contract Act
D None of the above
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Hindu Succession Act, the 2005 amendment made daughters coparceners by birth with equal rights as sons. This landmark reform eliminated gender discrimination in Hindu ancestral property succession.

32. Offer under section 2(a), Contract Act is-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Communication from one person to another
B Suggestion by one person to another
Willingness to do or abstain from doing an action in order to obtain the assent of other thereto
D None of the above
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, marriage (nikah) is a civil contract requiring: proposal (ijab), acceptance (qubul), two witnesses, and dower (mahr). It is not a sacrament but a contractual relationship.

33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Specific Relief Act, 1963, extends to the whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir
B Specific performance is granted where there exists no standard for ascertaining damage
C Where the aggrieved party can be adequately compensated in money, he will get only a decree for damages and not the recourse to
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, consumers are protected through three-tier redressal: District Commission, State Commission, and National Commission — based on value of goods/services and compensation claimed.

34. Which of the following is the correct statement:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under section 7, CP.C the suit may be for recovery of special movable property or, in the alternative for compensation
B Under section 7, C.P.C pecuniary compensation is not an adequate relief to the plaintiff for the loss of the article and the relief prayed is for injunction restraining the defendant from disposing of the article or otherwise injuring or concealing it, or for return of the same
C Both (A) and (B) are correct
All are incorrect
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is mandatory. No-fault liability (S.140) ensures minimum compensation for death/permanent disability regardless of fault — protecting all accident victims.

35. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit under Transfer of Property Act
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Upon his birth
B 7 days after his birth
C 12 days after his birth
D None of all
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, health, safety, and welfare of workers are regulated. Working hours (48/week max), overtime (double rates), canteen (250+ workers), welfare officer (500+ workers), and safety provisions are mandatory.

36. Which section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with onerous gift?
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Section 127
B Section 126
C Section 125
D Section 124
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'industrial dispute' (S.2(k)) covers disputes connected with employment, non-employment, terms of employment, or conditions of labour between employers and workmen.

37. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 9th December, 1881
B 19th December, 1881
1st March, 1882
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic records and digital signatures have legal validity. Cyber offences include hacking (S.66), identity theft (S.66C), cyber terrorism (S.66F), and publishing obscene material (S.67).

38. The term ‘Negotiable Instrument’ is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881,
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 12
Section 13
C Section 13A
D Section 13B
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a company is a separate legal entity (Salomon v. Salomon). It has perpetual succession, can own property, sue and be sued. The corporate veil can be lifted for fraud/sham.

39. When was the Advocates Act introduced?
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A 1962
B 1959
1961
D 1966
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Income Tax Act, income is taxed based on residential status. Residents pay on worldwide income; non-residents only on Indian-source income. Assessment year follows the previous year.

40. The Bar Council of India consists of following as an ex-officio member
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Attorney-General of India
B Solicitor-General of India
Both (A) & (B)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the Central Government can take measures to protect environment — setting standards, restricting industries, handling hazardous substances, and imposing penalties.

41. Indian Bar Committee was constituted first time under the chairmanship of Sir Adward Charnier in the year
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1927
B 1961
C 1949
1923
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, government can acquire private land for public purpose with fair compensation. The LARR Act 2013 reformed the process with better compensation, rehabilitation, and consent requirements.

42. Power of Disciplinary Committee under the Advocates Act is provided under;
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Section 42
B Section 53
C Section 40
D Section 36
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, professional misconduct is dealt with by State Bar Council disciplinary committees (S.35). Punishments: reprimand, suspension, or removal. Appeal to BCI (S.37) then SC (S.38).

43. The Indian Council of Arbitration was established in;
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A 1956
B 1976
1965
D 1996
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental rights (Part III) protect individual liberty against state action. They are enforceable through writs under Articles 32 (SC) and 226 (HC).

44. Lex Arbitri means
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A Arbitral Tribunal sitting in India can abide by the Singapore Law.
B Just Law
C Arbitrary Law
None of these
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Article 21, right to life includes: livelihood, shelter, health, education, privacy, dignity, speedy trial, legal aid, clean environment. The SC has continuously expanded its scope through judicial interpretation.

45. In India the Arbitration & Conciliation Act was enacted in
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1992
B 1993
C 1994
1996
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Article 19(1), six freedoms are guaranteed to citizens: speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. Each has reasonable restriction grounds specified in Articles 19(2)-(6).

46. Section 10 sub-section (1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act talks about
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Power of Arbitration
Numbers of Arbitrators
C Capacity of Arbitrators
D None of the above
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, directive principles (Part IV) guide state policy toward welfare but are non-justiciable. They complement fundamental rights and aim at social and economic justice.

47. Foreign court under section 2(5) of CPC means:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A court situated outside India
B A court situated outside India under the authority of Government of India
C A court situated in India applying foreign law
D All of these
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the amendment procedure (Art.368) requires special majority in both Houses. Some provisions need additional ratification by half the state legislatures. The basic structure cannot be amended.

48. Judgment under section 2(9) of CPC means:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A decree
B Dismissal of an appeal
Statement of ground of an order or decree
D All of the above
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance (S.10) is granted when damages are inadequate. Injunctions prevent wrongful acts (prohibitory) or compel performance (mandatory). Declaratory decrees establish rights.

49. Principle of Res-sub judice is provided in
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 10 of CPC
B Section 11 of CPC
C Section 13 of CPC
D Section 14 of CPC
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, every suit must be filed within the prescribed period. Time runs from the date cause of action arises. Section 5 allows condonation of delay in appeals/applications (not suits).

50. Doctrine of Res-judicata as contained in section 11 of CPC is based on the maxim:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Nemo debet bis vexari pro uno eteadern causa
B Interest republicae at sit finis litium
Both (A) & (B)
D Either (A) or (B)
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Arbitration Act, arbitral proceedings are flexible — tribunal not bound by CPC or Evidence Act. Awards must be reasoned, written, and signed. Challenge under S.34 on limited grounds only.

51. Principle of Res-judicata applies:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Between co-defendants
B Between co-plaintiffs
Both (A) & (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, implied conditions protect buyers: seller's title (S.14), description (S.15), quality and fitness (S.16), and sample (S.17). Breach gives buyer the right to reject goods.

52. Validity of a foreign judgment can be challenged under Section 13 of CPC;
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
In a civil court only
B In a criminal court only
C In both civil and criminal court
D Neither in civil nor in criminal court
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under tort law, negligence requires: duty of care, breach of that duty, causation, and damage. The standard is 'reasonable person' — what a prudent person would do in similar circumstances.

53. Under section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The district court
The court of the lowest grade
C The court of higher grade
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under tort law, vicarious liability makes employers liable for employees' torts committed during course of employment. The master-servant relationship and 'course of employment' are the key tests.

54. "X" residing in Delhi, publishes statements defamatory to "Y" in Calcutta, "Y" can sue "X" at:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Delhi
B Calcutta
C Anywhere in India
Either in Delhi or in Calcutta
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 19 CPC (illustration (b)), when X in Delhi publishes defamation against Y in Calcutta, Y can sue either where X resides (Delhi) or where the cause of action arose (Calcutta — place of publication). Both courts have jurisdiction.

55. A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Where the contract was made
B Where the contract was to be performed or breach occurred
C Anywhere in India
Both (A) and (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Copyright Act, protection lasts for author's lifetime plus 60 years. Registration is not mandatory but advisable. Fair dealing for research, criticism, and reporting is permitted.

56. In every plaint, under section 26 of CPC facts should be proved by:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Oral evidence
Affidavit
C Document
D Oral evidence as well as document
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Trade Marks Act, a trademark distinguishes one trader's goods/services from another's. Registration gives exclusive right to use. Infringement occurs when a deceptively similar mark is used.

57. The existence of statutes of limitation are due to:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Long dormant claims have more of cruelty than justice in them
B The defendant may have lost the evidence to dispute the stale claim
C Persons with good causes of action should pursue them with reasonable diligence
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under PIL, locus standi is relaxed — any public-spirited citizen can approach court for enforcement of rights of disadvantaged persons. PIL can be filed under Art.32 (SC) or Art.226 (HC).

58. Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable to-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Civil suits
B Criminal cases
C Both of the following is correct
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under administrative law, natural justice requires: nemo judex in causa sua (no bias) and audi alteram partem (hear both sides). These fundamental principles apply to all government decision-making.

59. Upon failure to hold Statutory Meeting, the penalty for the defaulting Company shall be-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Rs. 500 per day of default
B Wound up
C Rs. 1000 per day of the default
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, separation of powers divides government into legislature, executive, and judiciary. Though not absolute in India, checks and balances ensure no single branch becomes too powerful.

60. Free transferability of shares is mandatory in a-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Listed Company
B Company Ltd. by shares
Public Ltd. Company
D Foreign Company
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws. Reasonable classification is permitted if it has an intelligible differentia with a rational nexus to the objective.

63. In the IPC, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Eight years
B Ten years
Seven years
D Twelve years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, divorce grounds (S.13) include: adultery, cruelty, desertion (2 years), conversion, unsound mind, leprosy, venereal disease, renunciation, and not heard alive (7 years).

64. Right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death if the offence, which is occasions the exercise of right:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Reasonably causes apprehension that death will be caused
B Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury will be caused
C Is of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft
D Is if arresting a person who is running away after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Muslim law, types of divorce include: talaq (husband's right), khula (wife's initiative with consideration), mubarat (mutual), and judicial divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939.

65. Under section 498A IPC, the ‘Cruelty’ means and includes:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Only demand of dowry
B Only physical torture
Both mental & physical torture
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 32 guarantees the right to approach the SC for enforcement of fundamental rights — Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul of the Constitution.' It is itself a fundamental right.

66. What is the offence where preparation itself of an offence is punishable:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Theft
Dacoity
C Murder
D Rape
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, Order VII Rule 11 provides for rejection of plaint on grounds: no cause of action, undervalued and not corrected, barred by limitation, not properly stamped, or not filed in duplicate.

67. In Rex v. Govinda the points of distinction between the two provisions of the IPC were explained:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 34 and Section 149
B Section 302 and Section 304
Section 299 and Section 300
D Section 403 and Section 405
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 498A deals with cruelty by husband or relatives against a married woman. It is cognizable, non-bailable. The SC in Arnesh Kumar directed guidelines to prevent its misuse.

68. A has sexual intercourse with his own wife aged about 14 years with her consent. A committed:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A No offence
Offence of Rape
C Intercourse with own wife is not Rape
D As there was consent hence A cannot be held guilty for the offence of rape
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, 'factory' means premises with 10+ workers (with power) or 20+ workers (without power) in manufacturing. The Act ensures health, safety, and welfare of factory workers.

69. Who categorized the subject of ‘jurisprudence’ and censorial jurisprudence?
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Holland
Bentham
C Kelsen
D Paton
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'strike' (S.2(q)) is cessation of work by workers acting in combination. 'Lockout' (S.2(l)) is closing of workplace by employer. Both are regulated with notice requirements.

70. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer’s Extra version? .
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Savigny
B Salmond
Julius Stone
D Buckland
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, emergency provisions: national emergency (Art.352), President's rule (Art.356), and financial emergency (Art.360). Each has different triggers, procedures, and consequences.

71. ‘Fiction Theory’ is related to which of the following concepts?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ownership
B Liability
C Justice
Legal personality
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, Section 100 provides for second appeal to the High Court only on substantial questions of law. No second appeal lies on pure questions of fact — the HC must frame the substantial question.

72. A Sunni Muslim marries with Kitabya girl, the marriage is:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Valid
B V oid
C Irregular
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, Section 45 makes expert opinions relevant on: foreign law, science, art, handwriting, and finger impressions. The expert must have special skill — their opinion assists but doesn't bind the court.

73. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage act, 1939 is based on which School of Muslims-
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Hanafi School
B Shafi School
C Maliki School
D Zaidi School
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'gift' (S.122) is voluntary transfer without consideration. For immovable property, a registered instrument is required. For movable property, delivery suffices.

74. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
She is not married
B She is married
C She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
D She cannot adopt at all
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Preamble secures: justice (social, economic, political), liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (status, opportunity), and fraternity (dignity, unity).

75. A child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu law is:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Legitimate
B Illegitimate
C Illegal
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, three instruments are recognized: promissory note (S.4), bill of exchange (S.5), and cheque (S.6). Hundis are governed by custom, not by the NI Act.

76. The term “Lock-out” under the Industrial Disputes Act is- defined in:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 2(1)
B Section 2(0)
C Section 3(1)
D Section 2(M)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, injunctions can be temporary (interlocutory, Order XXXIX CPC), perpetual (permanent, S.37-42 SRA), or mandatory (compelling positive action). Each serves a different protective function.

77. The term “Lay-off” has been defined under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 2(KKK)
B Section 2(0)
C Section 2(1)
D Section 3(1)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Contract Act, 'agency' (S.182) is where one person (agent) acts for another (principal). Every partner is an agent of the firm. Agency can be express, implied, or by necessity.

78. The Trade Union Act was enacted in:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
1926
B 1946
C 1947
D 1988
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 226 gives HCs wider writ jurisdiction than SC's Article 32 — HCs can issue writs for fundamental rights AND any other purpose, while SC writs are limited to fundamental rights.

79. The term “Minimum Wage” has been described in:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Trade Unions Act, 1926
B The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, the Magistrate must produce the arrested person before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours (Art.22(2)). Detention beyond 24 hours without judicial authorization is unconstitutional.

81. The Trade Union Act provide for:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
registration of trade union
B registration of trade union for workers
C recognition of registration of trade union as Juristic Persons
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'leading questions' (S.141) suggest their own answer. Prohibited in examination-in-chief (S.142) but freely allowed in cross-examination (S.143). Court may permit for introductory matters.

82. Supremacy of law, Equality before law, and predominance of legal Spirit are the basic principles of doctrine of
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Colorable Legislation
B Doctrine of “Separation of Powers”
Doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’
D Doctrine of Excessive delegation
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental duties (Art.51A, Part IVA) include respecting the Constitution, defending India, promoting harmony, protecting environment, and developing scientific temper. Added by 42nd Amendment.

83. Rule of Law is antithesis of arbitrariness in all civilized societies. It has come to be regarded as mark of a free society. It seeks to maintain the balance between the opposite notions of individual liberty and public order, this was opined by whom in famous “Habeas Corpus” Case?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Justice HR. Khanna
B Chief Justice Ray
Justice Chandrachud
D Justice Bhagwati
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, Section 52 (lis pendens) provides that during pendency of a suit involving immovable property, the property cannot be transferred so as to affect rights of any party.

84. Maxim ‘delegatus non potest del’ means?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A delegate can further delegate
A delegate cannot further delegate
C A delegate must protest delegation objectively
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, res sub-judice (S.10) stays a later suit when an earlier suit on the same matter between same parties is pending in a competent court. This prevents parallel proceedings and conflicting decisions.

85. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is predominantly based on UN General Assembly resolution with due negotiations in the:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A UNCITRAL
B UNCTAD
C UN ECOSOU
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, Class I heirs of a Hindu male include: son, daughter, widow, mother, and descendants of predeceased children. They take simultaneously and exclude all other heirs.

86. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in the year:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1985
1986
C 2005
D 2008
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the polluter pays principle requires polluting industries to bear costs of prevention and remediation. The precautionary principle shifts burden of proof to the developer.

87. Appeal against the award of Claims Tribunals under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 can be made under:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 171
B Section 172
Section 173
D Section 174
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic records have the same legal validity as paper records (S.4). Digital signatures authenticate electronic documents (S.3). This is the legal foundation for digital India.

88. The amendment in Motor Vehicles Act in 1994, the compensation in case of death of the person is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Rs. 25,000
Rs. 50,000
C Rs. 70,000
D Rs. 90,000
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under tort law, strict liability (Rylands v. Fletcher) holds that a person who brings a dangerous thing on their land is liable if it escapes — regardless of fault. In India, MC Mehta expanded this to absolute liability.

89. Under the vicarious liability, the liability is:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Joint
B Several
Both (A) and (B)
D Either of the above depending upon facts and circumstances of the case
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 'defect' means fault, imperfection, or shortcoming in quality, quantity, potency, purity, or standard of goods. 'Deficiency' means fault in quality or nature of services.

90. In Torts, in case of Defamation:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Intention to defame is not necessary
B Intention to defame is necessary
C Both (A) and (B)
D Either (A) or (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 368 provides the amendment procedure. Special majority (2/3 present and voting + majority of total membership) in both Houses. Some provisions also need state ratification.

91. The Father of which of the leader has been the Deputy Prime Minister of India?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Kumari Mayawati
Mrs. Meira Kumar
C Mrs. Pratibha Singh Patil
D Mrs. Vasundhara Raje
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, Section 5 allows condonation of delay only in appeals and applications — NOT in suits. The applicant must demonstrate 'sufficient cause' for the delay.

92. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B.N. Rao
D Jawaharlal Nehru
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 34 creates constructive liability — when criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention, each is liable as if they alone did it. Prior concert must exist.

93. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India is based on:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Procedure established by law
B Due process of law
Rule of law
D International treaties and convention
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, Section 482 preserves the High Court's inherent power to prevent abuse of court process or to secure ends of justice. This extraordinary power is exercised sparingly.

94. Protection of environment is a:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Constitutional Duty
B Directive Principle
C Fundamental Duty
Both (B) & (C)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, directors owe fiduciary duties: act in good faith, avoid conflicts, not make secret profits, exercise care and diligence. They are agents and trustees of the company.

95. The item ‘Education’ belongs to the:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Union List
B State List
Concurrent List
D Residuary Subject
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the Collector makes the award determining compensation. Dissatisfied landowners can seek reference to court under S.18. The court can enhance compensation if found inadequate.

96. While interpreting the phrase “equality before the law” contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court constantly maintained that equality means:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Absolute equality among human beings
B Equal treatment to all persons
Among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered
D Both (B) & (C)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, Section 49 empowers BCI to make rules on professional conduct, legal education, enrollment qualifications, and disciplinary procedures. These rules have statutory force.

97. The number of fundamental rights available in Constitution of India are:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Six
B Seven
C Eight
D Ten
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, claims tribunals (MACT) adjudicate accident compensation. The multiplier method considers annual income, age, dependency, and future prospects for calculating just compensation.

98. Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right to equality
B Rights to Freedom of Religion
Rights to Constitutional Remedies
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General (Art.148) audits government accounts. The CAG is appointed by the President and can only be removed like a SC judge — ensuring independence.

99. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 years
B Upto 65 years of age
6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D Upto 62 years of age
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General reports to the President (for central accounts) and Governor (for state accounts). These reports are laid before Parliament/Legislature for scrutiny.

100. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Quo Warranto
B Mandamus
Habeas Corpus
D Certiorari
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Habeas Corpus is the bulwark of personal freedom — it protects against illegal detention. The detaining authority must produce the detainee before the court and justify the detention. If unjustified, the person is released.