AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE VII — September 2014

AIBE VII — September 2014 — Complete Questions with Answers

95 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 September 2014
1. Doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the benefit of an instrument must-
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A Not bear the burden
B Burden is not the subject of election
C Burden is the subject of election
Bear the burden
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The doctrine of election (S.35 TPA) provides that a person who accepts a benefit under an instrument must also bear its burden. You cannot accept the advantage while rejecting the disadvantage — both come together.

2. Frost v. Knight is a leading case on-
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A Section 32, Contract Act, 1872
B Section 33, Contract Act, 1872
Section 34, Contract Act, 1872
D Section 35, Contract Act, 1872
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Frost v. Knight is a leading case on anticipatory breach of contract (S.34 Indian Contract Act). The defendant promised to marry the plaintiff after his father's death but repudiated before that event — the court allowed the action before the breach date arrived.

3. Which among the following is a law based on equity?
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A Indian Contract Act, 1872
B Indian Penal Code, 1860
C Indian Partnership Act, 1932
Specific Relief Act, 1963
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of which legal concept is based on legislation vs judicial precedent. Some areas of law are purely statutory (codified) while others developed through case law (common law traditions).

4. Which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 describes temporary injunction-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 45
B 41
37
D 36
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Sections 80-82 of the Transfer of Property Act deal with marshalling and contribution by co-mortgagors. These provisions protect the rights of subsequent mortgagees when the prior mortgagee has multiple securities.

5. The maintenance amount which can be transferred is, -
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A Future maintenance
B Right to future maintenance
Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, a transfer 'inter vivos' means a transfer between living persons. The Act governs how property is transferred during the lifetime of the transferor — not testamentary transfers (which are under the Succession Act).

6. The maximum period during which property can be tied up is
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A Only 15 years
One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and the minority of an unborn person
C During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests identification of the correct legal provision or principle. Each option represents a different legal concept — match the described situation to the correct section or rule.

7. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to have inflicted ______on the victim.
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Grievous hurt
Hurt
C Assault
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act, specific performance can be enforced when there is no standard for ascertaining actual damage caused by non-performance, or when monetary compensation would not be adequate relief.

8. Personation at Election is an offence under Section ______of the Indian Penal Code.
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A 124A
B 121A
C 153B
171D
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act (pre-2018 amendment) listed contracts that cannot be specifically performed — personal service contracts, contracts where performance involves continuous duties requiring court supervision, and determinable contracts.

9. Raman having found a key of Raju’s house which Raju had lost, commits house trespass by entering Raju’s house after opening the door with that key. Raman has committed the offence of-
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A House trespass
B Criminal trespass
House breaking
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 governs contracts for sale of goods. 'Goods' includes every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money. Standing timber, growing crops, and things attached to land can be goods if agreed to be severed.

10. ______defined crime as a ‘violation of public rights and duties due to the whole- community considered as community’,
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Blackstone
B Justice Bhagwati
C V .R. Krishna lyer
D Lord Heward
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, a 'holder in due course' has the best title — they acquire the instrument before maturity, for consideration, and without notice of defect. They can enforce the instrument even if the transferor had defective title.

11. Who among the following is not a ‘public servant’?
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A Liquidator
B A Civil Judge
Secretary of a Co-operative Society
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests knowledge of a specific constitutional provision or amendment. The correct answer requires matching the described concept to the right Article or Amendment number.

12. The Sampooma Grameen Rozgar Yojana (Universal Rural Employment Programme) was launched in 2001 and was implemented through
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A Labour offices
B Government
Panchayati Raj Institutions
D An the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the distribution of legislative power between Centre and States is through the Seventh Schedule — Union List (exclusively central), State List (exclusively state), and Concurrent List (both can legislate).

13. Right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose-off property is abolished by-
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44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978
B 43rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
C 50th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1950
D 1st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1951
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Article 21 guarantees right to life and personal liberty. The SC has expansively interpreted this to include: livelihood, shelter, health, education, privacy, dignity, speedy trial, legal aid, and clean environment.

15. National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development is a major environmental policy in India and it was passed in the year-
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A 1988
B 1982
1992
D 1990
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Preamble declares India's commitment to justice (social, economic, political), liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (status, opportunity), and fraternity (dignity of individual, unity of nation).

16. _______of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, defines ‘Environment’
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Section 2(a)
B Section 3(a)
C Section 1(a)
D Section 11(a)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests knowledge of environmental law provisions. Key environmental statutes include: Environment Protection Act 1986, Water Act 1974, Air Act 1981, Forest Conservation Act 1980, and Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

17. Polluter Pays Principle means-
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Polluter should bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is responsible for pollution
B Polluter should not necessarily bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may not be responsible for pollution
C Polluter may bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may be responsible for pollution
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic records and digital signatures have legal validity equivalent to paper records and handwritten signatures. This forms the foundation of e-commerce and e-governance in India.

18. “Pollution is a civil wrong. By its very nature, it is a tort committed against the community as a whole. A person, therefore, who is guilty of causing pollution, has to pay damages (compensation) for restoration of the environment. He has also to pay damages to those who have suffered loss on account of the act of the offender. Further, the offender can also be held liable to pay exemplary damages so that it may act as a deterrent for others not to cause pollution in any manner. However, the court cannot impose any pollution fine in absence of any trial and finding of guilty under the relevant statutory provisions.” This observation was made in-
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M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
B Calcutta Tanneries Case
C M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
D A.P . Pollution Control Board v. M. V . Nayudu
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, the memorandum of association is the constitution of a company — it defines its relationship with the outside world, including name, registered office, objects, liability, and capital.

19. India became a party to the International Convention on Biological Diversity in the year-
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A 1992
B 1995
1994
D 2000
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CPC, the concept of jurisdiction determines which court can hear a case. Territorial jurisdiction (where), pecuniary jurisdiction (how much), and subject-matter jurisdiction (what type) must all be satisfied.

20. "A", a railway company, is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, demurrage and freight but rival claims have been made by B and C adversely to each other. A can institute-
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A An application to decide the same
An interpleader suit
C Friendly suit
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

When a person holds goods/property with no personal interest but two or more persons make rival claims, they can file an interpleader suit under Section 88 CPC. The railway company (as consignee) has only a lien — no ownership interest — making interpleader the appropriate remedy.

21. What is the period of limitation to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment?
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A 2 Years
B 3 Years
C 12 Years
1 Year
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, execution of decrees allows the successful party to enforce the court's order. Methods include: attachment and sale of property, arrest and detention, delivery of specific property, and appointment of receiver.

22. As per Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 if any payment is made on account of a debt, before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or by his agent duly authorized in that behalf a fresh period of limitation starts running from the-
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A Time when suit was filed
When the payment was made
C When the creditor demands
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, Order XXXIX provides for temporary injunctions to preserve the status quo pending final adjudication. The three essential conditions are: prima facie case, balance of convenience, and irreparable injury.

23. Under the Companies Act, 2013, any company having a net worth of rupees 500 crore or more or a turnover of rupees 1,000 crores or more or a net profit of rupees 5 crore or more should mandatorily spend ____ of their net profits per fiscal on Corporate Social Responsibility activities
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A 3%
B 5%
C 10%
2%
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, appeals are the primary remedy against wrong decisions. First appeal lies from original decrees (S.96), second appeal to HC on substantial questions of law (S.100), and appeal from orders (S.104).

24. The ______Guidelines constitute one of the most comprehensive CSR tools available to companies.
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OECD
B OACF
C OECG
D ASEAN
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 300 defines murder — culpable homicide becomes murder when done with intention to cause death, intention to cause bodily injury known to be deadly, or when the act is so imminently dangerous that death is virtually certain.

25. Conditions of Hindu Marriage have been laid down under _____of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 9
B Section 10
Section 5
D Section 13
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under IPC, the right of private defence (S.96-106) allows reasonable force to protect person or property. It extends to causing death in extreme situations — apprehension of murder, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, or dangerous wrongful confinement.

26. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A ’ Allows married daughters of the deceased equal rights with unmarried daughters
B Allows sons of the deceased equal rights with widow
C Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with wife
Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with sons
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under IPC, criminal conspiracy (S.120A-120B) is the agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act. The mere agreement is the offence — no overt act is required for the offence to be complete.

27. The Fuller/Hart Debate could be summarized as a debate between which two jurisprudential approaches/positions.
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A Positivism and utilitarianism
Natural Law and Positivism
C Positivism and Liberalism
D Marxism and liberal feminism
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under IPC, offences against women include: cruelty by husband (S.498A), dowry death (S.304B), outraging modesty (S.354), sexual harassment (S.354A), voyeurism (S.354C), stalking (S.354D), and rape (S.375-376).

28. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 months
B 1 year
C 2 years
3 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CrPC, the FIR (S.154) is the first step in criminal law machinery. It sets investigation in motion. The SHO must register it for cognizable offences — refusal is itself an offence.

29. Section 167 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the nature of custody can be altered from judicial custody to police custody and vice-versa. This alteration can be done during the period of first-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
15 days
B 16 days
C 14 days
D 12 days
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CrPC, bail provisions distinguish between bailable (bail as right, S.436) and non-bailable offences (bail at discretion, S.437). Anticipatory bail (S.438) is pre-arrest protection.

30. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 150
B Section 105
Section 50
D Section 510
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, the Magistrate's power to take cognizance (S.190) is triggered by: complaint, police report (chargesheet), or own information/knowledge. This is the formal commencement of judicial proceedings.

31. Section 41B is inserted into the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions-
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A Nandini Satpathy v. P .L. Dhani
B Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
C Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, 'nikah' (marriage) is a civil contract requiring: proposal (ijab), acceptance (qubul), two witnesses, and dower (mahr). Unlike Hindu marriage, it is not a sacrament but a contractual relationship.

32. Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a clinical Psychologist! Psychiatrist. However by virtue of section ___ the aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of head of Psychiatry and faculty of Medical College.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 328, Cr.P.C
328 (lA), Cr.P.C
C 328 (2), Cr.P.C
D 346, Cr.P.C
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Hindu Marriage Act, the essential conditions for valid marriage (S.5) include: no living spouse, mental fitness, minimum age (21/18), not within prohibited degrees, and not sapindas — unless custom permits.

33. SFIO stands for-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Serious Fraud Investigation Office
B Serious Force Institution Office
C Serious Form Investigation Office
D Serious File Investigation Office
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Hindu law, coparcenary property is joint family property in which members have birthright. After the 2005 amendment, daughters are coparceners equal to sons with the same rights to demand partition.

34. Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 discuss about the issue of bonus shares out of its free reserves or the securities premium account or the capital redemption reserve account, subject to the compliance with certain conditions such as authorization by the article, approval in the general meeting?
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A Section 36
B Section 43
Section 63
D Section 33
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, confessions to police officers are inadmissible (S.25), confessions in police custody are inadmissible unless before a Magistrate (S.26), but information leading to discovery is admissible (S.27).

35. The question whether the Fundamental Rights can be amended under Article 368 came for consideration first time in-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
B Keshavananda Bharati v. Union of India
C Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, dying declarations (S.32(1)) are admissible as exceptions to hearsay. The declarant need not have been under expectation of death. The statement must relate to cause of death or circumstances leading to death.

36. A law which violates fundamental rights is not nullity or void-ab-initio but becomes only unenforceable, this doctrine is called as
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A Doctrine of severability
B Doctrine of 3 points
C Tornado doctrine
Doctrine of eclipse
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'burden of proof' lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given (S.101). The onus shifts based on presumptions — whoever asserts must prove, subject to statutory presumptions.

37. Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reasons, it was observed by apex court in
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
B Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
C Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, privileged communications are protected from disclosure: attorney-client privilege (S.126), spousal communication during marriage (S.122), state secrets (S.123), and official communications (S.124).

38. Evidences to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts is called as-
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Patent ambiguity
B Latent ambiguity
C Both of them
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, professional misconduct by advocates is dealt with by the State Bar Council disciplinary committee (S.35). Punishments include: reprimand, suspension, or removal from the state roll.

39. Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in-
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Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
C Bankers Book Evidence Act, 1891
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, advocates have duties to: the court (highest), clients, opposing counsel, and the profession. Court duty trumps all — an advocate cannot mislead the court even to benefit the client.

40. In bailment if the goods are lent free of cost to the bailee for his use it is known as bailment by-
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A Deposition
B Pledge
Commodation
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, free legal aid is available to women, children, SC/ST members, victims of trafficking, persons with disabilities, industrial workmen, persons in custody, and those below income threshold.

41. Where the proposal and acceptance is through letters, the contract is made at the place where-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The acceptance is received
The letter of acceptance is posted
C Both the above answers
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, a 'consumer' includes a buyer of goods or hirer of services for consideration. Persons buying for commercial resale are NOT consumers. Only end-users are protected.

43. All contracts which are unlawful and void are known as
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Illegal contracts
Nugatory contracts
C V oidable contracts
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under tort law, 'vicarious liability' means liability of one person for the tort of another — typically employer for employee's torts committed during course of employment (respondeat superior principle).

44. Section ______of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 deals with ‘noting’ -
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 100
B 101
C 102
99
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, a 'factory' means premises with 10+ workers (with power) or 20+ workers (without power) engaged in manufacturing. The Act ensures health, safety, welfare, working hours, and leave provisions.

45. Cancellation of crossing is also called-
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A Marking
Opening of crossing
C Cancellation
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'strike' (S.2(q)) is cessation of work by workers acting in combination. 'Lockout' (S.2(l)) is closing of workplace by employer. Both are regulated with notice requirements.

46. Negotiable claim issued by a bank in return for a term deposit is called-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Share certificate
B Certificate of incorporation
Certificate of deposit
D Term deposit
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the IT Act, cyber offences include: hacking (S.66), identity theft (S.66C), cheating by personation (S.66D), cyber terrorism (S.66F), and publishing obscene material online (S.67). Penalties vary by severity.

47. Wager relate with-
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A Present event
B Past event
C Future event
Any of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the government can acquire private land for 'public purpose.' The LARR Act (2013) replaced the 1894 Act with better compensation (up to 4x market value in rural areas), rehabilitation, and consent requirements.

48. In the judgment of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by to prepare a case management formula.
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A Justice Bhagwati
B Justice Muralidhar
C Justice Raveendran
Justice Jagannadha Rao
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under income tax law, 'previous year' is the financial year in which income is earned. 'Assessment year' is the following year in which that income is assessed and taxed. Income of PY 2023-24 is assessed in AY 2024-25.

49. The Companies Act, 2013 has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to-
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A 100
200
C 300
D 150
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a company is a separate legal entity distinct from its members (Salomon v. Salomon). It can own property, sue and be sued, and has perpetual succession independent of its members.

50. The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the Companies Act, 2013 and would be subject to notification by the-
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NFRA
B NRFA
C NARG
D SEBI
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, PIL (Public Interest Litigation) relaxes traditional locus standi — any public-spirited person can approach the court for enforcement of rights of disadvantaged groups who cannot access justice themselves.

51. Rabindra Kumar Pal @ Dam Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under Section 30 of Evidence Act, 1872 is also well- known as-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Graham Stains Murder case
B Graham Bells Murder case
C Graham Street’s Murder case
D Graham Stoits Murder case
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under administrative law, the doctrine of natural justice requires: (1) nemo judex in causa sua (no bias) and (2) audi alteram partem (hear both sides). These apply to judicial, quasi-judicial, and administrative decisions.

53. A Charge-Sheet filed under Section 173 of Cr.P.C. is an example of-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Public document
Private document
C Patent document
D Latent document
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, every suit must be filed within the prescribed period. Time runs from when the cause of action arises. Delay defeats equity — courts strictly enforce limitation unless condoned.

54. Procedure of investigation of criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code is contained in Chapter-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A XI
XII
C X
D IX
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, a 'lease' (S.105) is transfer of the right to enjoy immovable property for a certain time in consideration of rent. The lessor retains ownership while the lessee gets possession.

55. Identify the correct order in which the following law-making treaties are concluded- (1) The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations (2) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (3) The Declaration of Paris Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A (1), (3), (2)
(3), (2), (1)
C (2), (1), (3)
D (1), (2), (3)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'consideration' (S.2(d)) is the price for a promise. It can flow from the promisee or any other person, can be past/present/future, and must be real though need not be adequate.

56. Which one of the following doctrine requires that the parties to a treaty are bound to observe its terms in good faith?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Drago doctrine
B Right of asylum
C Doctrine of equality
Pacta Sunt Seroanda
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, res judicata (S.11) bars relitigation of matters already decided. The five conditions are: same parties, same matter, same court jurisdiction, decided on merits, and final judgment.

57. General Assembly adopted the definition of word Aggression through-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Resolution 3314 XXIX, 1974
B Resolution 3312 XXXIX, 1973
C Resolution 2213, 1982
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, a decree can be preliminary (determining rights but requiring further proceedings), final (completely disposing suit), or partly both. The classification affects appealability and execution rights.

59. “A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Who stated this?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
L. Oppenheim
B Hobbes
C Fenwick
D Starke
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 34 (common intention) and Section 149 (common object) impose constructive liability. S.34 needs prior concert and common intention; S.149 needs membership of unlawful assembly with common object.

60. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1997
B 1998
1996
D 2013
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, different courts have different sentencing powers: Sessions Court (any sentence including death), CJM (up to 7 years), JMFC (up to 3 years), JMSC (up to 1 year). This hierarchy ensures proper adjudication.

62. Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
M/s. Safescript
B M/s. NCERT
C M/s. MTL
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Muslim law, 'talaq' is the husband's right to dissolve marriage. Types include: talaq-e-ahsan (single pronouncement + iddat), talaq-e-hasan (three pronouncements in three months), and talaq-e-biddat (triple talaq — struck down in Shayara Bano, 2017).

63. Section 43 of the “Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with-
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Criminal liability
Civil liability
C Both the above
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'document' (S.3) includes any matter expressed or described on any substance by letters, figures, or marks. This extremely broad definition covers writing, photographs, maps, inscriptions, and electronic records.

64. “Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected.” Which section of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 envisages so?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 43
43A
C 43B
D 43C
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, Section 65B provides for admissibility of electronic records through a certificate. After Anvar P.V. (2014), the S.65B certificate is mandatory — electronic evidence without it is inadmissible.

65. R obtained a sum of Rs. 50,000/- from D by putting D in fear of death. Here, R commits-
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A Extortion
B Cheating
C Mischief
Robbery
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the separation of powers doctrine divides government into: legislature (makes law), executive (implements law), and judiciary (interprets law). Though not absolute in India, checks and balances exist.

66. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is _____from the date on which it becomes due.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
1 year
B 5 years
C 9 years
D 15 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 14 guarantees equality — both 'equality before law' (no special privilege for anyone) and 'equal protection of laws' (similar treatment for similarly situated persons).

67. The Jural correlative of immunity is-
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A Power
Disability
C No claim
D Claim
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, territorial jurisdiction (S.16-20) determines WHICH court hears the case. S.16: immovable property suits where property situated. S.20: other suits where defendant resides or cause of action arose.

68. Who defines “eternal law is the divine order or Will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach of it”?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ambrose
Augustine
C Gregory
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under IPC, defamation (S.499-500) can be civil (tort — damages) or criminal (prosecution — up to 2 years). The statement must lower the person in the estimation of others. Truth is a defence if in public interest.

69. ‘Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one.’ Who stated so?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Thomas Paine
B Gregory Peck
C Jefferson
D Dicey
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, the concept of 'caveat emptor' (buyer beware) means the buyer must examine goods before purchase. Exceptions exist for: fitness of purpose, merchantable quality, sale by description, and sample.

70. The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of Tribunals as instruments of quasi- judicial administrative adjudication
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 39(a) and 39(b)
Article 323A and 323B
C Article 368
D Article 202A and 202B
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'undue influence' (S.16) exists when one party can dominate the other's will. The dominant party must prove the contract was not induced by undue influence — reverse burden of proof.

71. Nemo judex in causa sua meaning “No man shall be a judge in his own cause” was first stated by ______ in Dr. Bonham’s Case.
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A Lord Grey
B Lord Heward
Lord Coke
D Lord Moulton
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, an 'easement' is a right enjoyed by the owner of one land (dominant heritage) over another's land (servient heritage) — like right of way, light, water, or support.

72. General power of the Bar Council of India to make Rules is envisaged under which section of the Advocates Act, 1961?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 48
Section 49
C Section 11
D Section 42
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, claims tribunals (MACT) are established to adjudicate motor accident compensation claims. The tribunal awards compensation considering: age, income, disability, and multiplier method.

73. Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Justice Abbot Parry
B Justice Heward
C Justice Bhagwati
D Justice Grey
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, injunctions can be: temporary (interlocutory, pending trial — Order XXXIX CPC), perpetual (permanent, by decree — S.37-42 SRA), or mandatory (compelling positive action).

74. Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
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A 35
B 37
36
D 39
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, working hours are regulated: maximum 48 hours/week, 9 hours/day, with weekly holiday. Overtime at double rates. Women restricted from night work (7 PM to 6 AM) subject to exemptions.

75. Section _____of Advocates Act, 1961 speaks about Constitution of Legal Aid Committees.
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A 9
B 10
9A
D 10A
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'retrenchment' (S.2(oo)) means termination for any reason other than punishment. Conditions: one month's notice or pay, 15 days' wages per year of service as compensation, and last-come-first-go principle.

76. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act of _____ which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanisms.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1989
1999
C 1988
D 2009
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic governance is promoted through: recognition of electronic records (S.4), digital signatures (S.5), electronic filing with government (S.6), and legal validity of electronic contracts (S.10A).

77. In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside India, unless any or all provisions have been excluded by agreement between the parties.
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A.
B United India Ins. Co. Ltd. v. Associated Transport Corporation Ltd.
C Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd.
D Ajmera Brothers v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Copyright Act, copyright protection lasts for the author's lifetime plus 60 years. For anonymous/pseudonymous works, government works, and posthumous works, different terms apply.

78. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under section ______of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
22B
B 22A
C 22(1)
D 22
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, emergency provisions include: national emergency (Art.352), state emergency/President's rule (Art.356), and financial emergency (Art.360). Each has different triggers and consequences.

79. What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Specific performance and injunction
B Specific performance and damages
C Specific performance only
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, a Hindu female's property devolves under special rules (S.15-16). Property inherited from parents goes back to the source family; property inherited from husband goes to husband's heirs.

80. ‘A’ resides at Delhi, and ‘B’ at Agra. B borrows Rs. 20,000/- from A at Benares and passes a promissory note to A payable at Benares. B fails to repay the loan. A may sue B at-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Benares or Agra
B Benares only
C Agra only
D Benares, Agra and Delhi
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CrPC, investigation includes: proceeding to the spot, ascertaining facts, discovering the offender, collecting evidence, forming opinion on whether to forward case to Magistrate. It is primarily a police function.

81. The general principle of waiver that provides that failure to raise objection in the court of the first instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent stage and the judgment would not be vitiated on the ground of absence of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 15
B Section 16
C Section 51
Section 21
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, leading questions (S.141-143) suggest their own answer. They are prohibited in examination-in-chief (S.142) but permitted in cross-examination (S.143). Court can allow them for introductory matters.

82. Act of court can do no wrong to any person. Which concept relates to this ideology-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Precept
B Caveat
Restitution
D Injunction
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'mistake' vitiates consent differently: bilateral mistake of essential fact makes agreement void (S.20); unilateral mistake is generally not ground for avoidance (S.22); mistake of law gives no relief (S.21).

83. As per the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the word ‘inspection’ used in Section 93(1) (c) refers to-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Things or documents
B Documents only
C Locality and place
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'judicial notice' (S.56-57) means the court can recognize certain facts without formal proof — like laws, geographical facts, public officials, and similar matters of common knowledge.

84. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used during trial for-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Corroborating the witness
Contradicting the witness
C Both (A) and (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, directors are the company's agents and trustees. They owe fiduciary duties: act in good faith, avoid conflicts of interest, not make secret profits, and exercise due care and diligence.

85. “If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such minor offence has been committed.” It was so upheld in which case-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Sangarabonia Sreenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
C Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
D Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental duties (Art.51A) include: respecting Constitution/flag/anthem, defending India, promoting harmony, protecting environment, developing scientific temper, safeguarding public property, and striving for excellence.

86. 'Ex dolo malo oritur actio' is
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A An action arose only when a right infringes
B An action could not prevent a legal right
No action on an immoral act
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

'Ex dolo malo non oritur actio' means no action arises from fraud or an immoral/illegal act. A person cannot found a legal claim on their own wrongdoing. If the cause of action itself is based on an illegal or immoral act, the court will not entertain it.

87. Qui facit per alium facit per se, means
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Act of an agent is the act of principal
B Act of an agent is not an act of principal
C Principal and agent are liable jointly
D Agent must not act in contravention of the act of principal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, Order XX deals with judgment and decree. The court must pronounce judgment in open court within 30 days of completing arguments. The decree follows from the judgment and must be drawn up separately.

88. The concept of ‘privity of contract’ was rejected in-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Winterbottom v. Wright
B Donoghue v. Stevenson
C Longmeid v. Holiday
D Heaven v. Pender
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 'endorsement' (S.15) is signing on the instrument to transfer it. Endorsement can be: in blank (just signature), in full (with endorsee's name), restrictive, conditional, or partial.

89. _______is observed as the World Consumer Rights Day.
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15th of March
B 16th of March
C 12th of March
D 11th of March
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Partnership Act, partnership property includes: property originally brought in, property acquired with firm money, and goodwill of the business. Partners are co-owners of partnership property.

90. Accountability of medical professional and the need for qualitative change in the attitude of the medical service provided by the hospitals was emphasized by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases
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A Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A.
Indian Medical Association v. V .P . Shaniha and Ors.
C Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D Lucknow Development Authorihj v. M.K. Gupta
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the polluter pays principle requires the polluting entity to bear the cost of preventing and remediating pollution. The SC applied this in Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum (1996).

91. Renewal of driving licenses is envisaged under Section _____of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
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A 20
B 21
C 22
15
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, a complaint can be filed for: defective goods, deficient services, unfair trade practices, restrictive trade practices, and goods/services hazardous to life. Limitation: 2 years.

92. Section 82 IPC is an illustration for-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Presumption of fact
Presumption of law
C Presumption of fact and presumption of law
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'vested interest' (S.19) creates an immediate right to present or future enjoyment. It transfers on the death of the transferee to their heirs — unlike contingent interest which depends on an uncertain event.

93. Meaning of Nemo moriturus praesumuntur mentiri-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A dying man can never speak truth
A dying man can never speak falsehood
C A dying man can speak truth
D A dying man may not speak falsehood
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, divorce by mutual consent (S.13B) requires: living separately for 1+ years, inability to live together, and mutual agreement to dissolve. There is a 6-month cooling period after first motion.

94. If a court lower to the Sessions Court tries a murder case that court is called as
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A Coram sub judice
Coram nail judice
C Coram non subjudice
D Coram judice
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CrPC, Section 125 provides secular maintenance for wife, children, and parents unable to maintain themselves. It applies regardless of religion — all communities can seek maintenance under this criminal remedy.

95. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is mainly meant to serve the needs of-
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Organised workers
B Unorganised workers
Unorganized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
D Organized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under administrative law, delegated legislation (rules, regulations, bye-laws made by executive under authority of legislature) must not exceed the scope of the parent Act and must comply with procedural requirements.

96. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is proclaimed under ______of the Constitution of India.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 39(a)
Article 39(d)
C Article 39(b)
D Article 39(c)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Article 39(d) of the Constitution directs the state to ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women. This DPSP has been made enforceable through judicial decisions — the SC in Randhir Singh (1982) treated it as an Article 14 right.

97. Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1992
1982
C 2009
D 2010
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, when a workman is suspended pending investigation, the employer must pay subsistence allowance. The amount and conditions are prescribed under applicable standing orders or settlement terms.

98. ________was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to ,deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to .go slow-
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Bank of India v. T.S. Kelawala
B Randhir Singh v. Union of India
C Kamani Metals and Alloys Ltd. v. Their Workmen
D Workmen v. Reptakos Brett and Co. Ltd.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This tests recall of a landmark case on a specific legal point. Identify the case from the options and match it to the legal principle described in the question.

99. Under the Industrial disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute/difference arising out of such termination shall be deemed to be:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Industrial dispute
B Individual dispute
C Both individual and industrial dispute
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, if an employer dismisses or discharges a workman, the dispute between the individual workman and employer is deemed an 'industrial dispute' even if no union or other workmen are parties. This was a significant expansion of the definition.

100. Gloucstershire Grammar School Case is a leading case to explain the-
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A Volenti non fit injuria
B Injuria non fit volenti
Damnum sine injuria
D Injuria sine damnum
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Gloucester Grammar School Case (1441) is the classic illustration of 'Damnum Sine Injuria' — damage without legal injury. A rival school caused financial loss but no legal right was violated, so no action lay. Legitimate competition doesn't create liability.