AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE VIII — May 2015

AIBE VIII — May 2015 — Complete Questions with Answers

100 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 May 2015
1. The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section of the Evidence Act, 1872
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
107
B 108
C 207
D 115
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 107 of the Evidence Act deals with the presumption of continuance of life — if a person was alive within 30 years, the burden of proving death lies on the person who asserts it. This is a rebuttable presumption.

2. Testimony of a witness to the existence or non-existence of the fact or facts in issue is/are
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Oral evidence
B Original evidence
Direct evidence
D Both (A) and (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Direct evidence is testimony by a witness who personally perceived the fact in issue — they saw, heard, or experienced it directly. It is the strongest form of oral evidence, unlike circumstantial or hearsay evidence.

3. Amendments made in the year _____ through the insertion of Section _____ to the Civil Procedure Code introduced provisions to enable the courts to refer pending cases to arbitration, conciliation and mediation to facilitate early and amicable resolution of disputes.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1989, 98
B 1990, 88
1999, 89
D 2001, 88
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 89 CPC (inserted by 1999/2002 amendment) introduced provisions for settlement of disputes outside the court through ADR methods: arbitration, conciliation, Lok Adalat, and mediation.

4. The Companies Act of 1956 accords recognition only to accounting standards whereas under Section 2(7) of the Companies Act of 2013 the recognition is accorded to both accounting and_____standards.
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Financing
Auditing
C Business
D Responsibility
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Sections 6-11 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act prescribe conditions for valid adoption — who can adopt, who can give in adoption, who can be adopted, and what conditions must be satisfied.

5. Companies Act, 2013 allows the formation of
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Two persons company only
B Seven persons company only
C Two or more persons company only
One person company also
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution. They are non-justiciable guidelines to the state for governance and policy-making.

6. Special Summons under Section 206 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be issued by
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Magistrate only
B A Magistrate as well as the Court of Sessions
C The Court of Sessions
D The High Court
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific constitutional amendment or provision. Constitutional amendments are numbered sequentially and each addresses a specific reform — the amendment number must be matched to the described change.

7. Pigeon Hole theory was proposed by
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Winfield
Salmond
C Black Stone
D Lord Knight
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Order VIII Rule 1 CPC, the written statement must be filed within 30 days from service of summons. The court may extend this to a maximum of 90 days for recorded reasons.

8. According to Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 no person under the age of ___ years shall drive a motor vehicle in any public place
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 20
B 16
18
D 21
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 10 CPC embodies the doctrine of res sub-judice — stay of a later suit when an earlier suit on the same matter between the same parties is pending in a competent court.

9. According to The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 what is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
B 2 years from which the article was purchased
C 3 years
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Contract Act, agreements made without consideration are generally void (S.25), with exceptions: natural love and affection (written + registered), past voluntary service, and time-barred debt promises.

10. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the District forum may prefer an appeal against such order to the _____within a period of ______days from the date of the order.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
State Commission, 30
B State Tribunal, 30
C State Forum, 30
D State Commission, 60
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests knowledge of a specific case law principle. Landmark cases and their holdings must be memorized as part of AIBE preparation since bare acts do not contain judicial interpretations.

11. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission was constituted in the year
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1998
1988
C 1999
D 2000
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Sections 96-106 IPC, the right of private defence allows a person to use reasonable force (including causing death in extreme cases) to defend person or property against imminent unlawful aggression.

12. A sees B running away from a room and afterwards sees C lying down in a pool of blood in the same room. A’s evidence in as far as seeing B running away is direct but as far as the murder is concerned, it is a _____
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A Primary evidence
Circumstantial evidence
C Real evidence
D Substantial evidence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 438 CrPC provides for anticipatory bail — a direction by the Sessions Court or High Court that if a person is arrested for a non-bailable offence, they shall be released on bail.

13. A statement made by an accused person before the trial begins, by which he admits to have committed the offence, but which he repudiates at the trial is known as __
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Extra-judicial confession
B Judicial confession
Retracted confession
D V oluntary confession
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Factories Act defines 'factory' as premises where manufacturing is carried on with 10+ workers (with power) or 20+ workers (without power). It ensures health, safety, and welfare of factory workers.

14. Expert opinion under Section 45 is
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A conclusive proof
B Not a conclusive proof
Supportive and corroborative in nature
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, share capital can be altered by: increasing (ordinary resolution), consolidating/sub-dividing (ordinary resolution), converting to stock (ordinary resolution), or reducing (special resolution + court confirmation).

15. _______of the Companies Act, 2013 requires disclosure in the prospectus of names and addresses of CFO about sources of promoters’ contribution among other things.
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 36
B Section 37
Section 26
D Section 38
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, 'public purpose' includes: planned development, village/town sites, infrastructure, education/housing schemes, and any purpose beneficial to the general public.

16. Section 253 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Determination of Sickness
B Liability of Directors
C Promoters
D Memorandum
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Consumer Protection Act provides three-tier redressal: District Commission (up to Rs. 1 crore), State Commission (Rs. 1-10 crore), and National Commission (above Rs. 10 crore). Complaints must be filed within 2 years.

17. If by imposing solitary confinement there is total deprivation of comraderie (friendship) amongst co-prisoners coming and taking and being talked to, it would offend Article 21 of the Constitution. The liberty to move, mix, mingle, talk, share company with co-prisoners if substantially curtailed would be violative of Article 21. This was held in the case of-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration, AIR 1978 SC 1675
B Kishore Singh v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1981 SC 625
C D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997SC 610
D Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, AIR 1989, SC 2039
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IT Act, a 'digital signature' means authentication of an electronic record by a subscriber by means of an electronic method specified in the Second Schedule. It provides legal validity to electronic documents.

18. In State of Kamataka v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 68, Appointment of a commission by the Union Government under Section 3(1) of the Commission of Inquiry Act (60 of 1952) to look into the charges of corruption etc. against the Chief Minister and other Ministers of a state was challenged. It was held,
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Arbitrary under Article 14
B Violates federal principle
C Jurisdiction of the Court is ousted and hence violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution
Federal Structure is not jeopardized
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, 'mahr' (dower) is a sum of money or property promised by the husband to the wife at marriage. It can be prompt (payable immediately) or deferred (payable on divorce or death).

19. Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be “cribbed, cabined and confined” within traditional and doctrinaire limits. From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies. This was stated in the case of-
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Jespar & Slong v. State of Meghalaya, AIR 2004SC 3533
B Vajravelu Mudiliar v. Special Dy Collector, AIR 1965 SC 1017
E.P . Royappa v. State of T.N., AIR 1974 SC555
D In Punjab Communication Ltd. v. Union of India, 1999 (4) SCC 727
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Income Tax Act, residential status (resident/non-resident/not ordinarily resident) determines tax liability. A resident is taxed on worldwide income; a non-resident only on Indian-source income.

20. Which Section under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 discusses about the rights and liabilities of buyer and the seller of immovable property?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 45
B 54
55
D 44
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Advocates Act governs the legal profession in India. It establishes Bar Councils, prescribes qualifications for enrollment, lays down professional standards, and provides disciplinary mechanisms.

21. Identify the wrong statement from the following:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor.
B In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is secondary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is primary and arises when the principal debtor defaults.
C The Indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, a 'mortgage' is the transfer of an interest in immovable property to secure a loan. Section 58 defines six types: simple, mortgage by conditional sale, usufructuary, English, equitable, and anomalous.

22. Which is true of contracts of agency?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The relation between the agent and the principal is of a trust
It is only when a person acts as a representative of the other in the creation, modification or termination of contractual obligations; between that order and third persons that he is an agent.
C The only essence of a contract of agency is the agent’s representative capacity.
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Indian Penal Code defines various offences against the state including waging war (S.121), sedition (S.124A), and promoting enmity between groups (S.153A). These carry severe punishments including death/life imprisonment.

23. Point out an example not related to a contract of bailment
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Delivering a watch or radio for repair
B Leaving a car or scooter at a parking stand
C Leaving luggage in a cloak room
A shareholder executes an agreement/bond favouring the company thereby agreeing to satisfy the company for any loss caused as a consequence of his own act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the CrPC, different courts have different sentencing powers: Sessions Court (any sentence), CJM (up to 7 years), JMFC (up to 3 years), JMSC (up to 1 year). This hierarchy ensures proportionate justice.

24. A corporate resolution is not an offer unless efforts are made to communicate it. Which case held so
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Blair v. Western Mutual Benefit Association
B R. v. Dawood
C Harvela Investments Ltd. v. Royal Trust Co. of Canada
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, relevancy and admissibility are distinct concepts. A fact may be relevant (connected to the issue) but inadmissible (excluded by law). Admissibility is the gateway for evidence to enter the trial.

25. Selvi’s daughter Kavita had married Shivakumar of a different caste against the wishes of her family. Shivakumar was brutally killed in 2004, and Selvi and two others became the suspects. Since the prosecution’s case depended entirely on circumstantial evidence, it sought the court’s permission to conduct polygraphy and brain-mapping tests on the three persons. The court granted permission and the tests were conducted. When the results of the polygraphy test indicated signs of deception, the prosecution sought the court’s permission to perform narcoanalysis on the three persons. The magistrate directed the three to undergo narcoanalysis. All of them challenged this decision in the Karnataka High Court, but failed to get relief. They then went in appeal to the Supreme Court. The Court held
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution.
B Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were valid under Articles 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution.
C Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 20(1) and 21 of the Constitution.
D Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, void marriages (S.11) have no legal effect from inception, while voidable marriages (S.12) are valid until annulled by court decree. The distinction affects property rights and legitimacy of children.

26. According to Article 71 Disputes arising in connection with the elections of a President or Vice-President are to be enquired into and decided by
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The Supreme Court
B High Court
C Both by High Court and Supreme Court
D Tribunal established for that purpose
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, courts have inherent power (S.151) to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process. This is a residual power used when no specific provision covers the situation.

27. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 regulates______
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The discharge of hazardous pollutants into the nation’s surface water.
B The emission of hazardous air pollutants.
C Waste disposal of sea.
D The transportation of hazardous materials.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Indian Contract Act defines 'consideration' (S.2(d)) as something done or promised at the desire of the promisor. Consideration can be past, present, or future, and can move from the promisee or any other person.

28. It was held by the Supreme Court that noise pollution beyond permissible limits cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
C Rural Enlightenment Kendra v. Union of India
D Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Arbitration Act, an arbitral award can be set aside under Section 34 on limited grounds: incapacity, invalid agreement, lack of notice, beyond scope, improper composition, non-arbitrable subject, or public policy violation.

29. The Supreme Court observed, Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example, in escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability. In such a case, the measure of compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise because such compensation must have a deterrent effect. The larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater must be the amount of compensation payable by it for the harm caused on account of an accident in the carrying on of the hazardous or inherently dangerous activity by the enterprise. Name the case.
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, 1991
B Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P ., 1985
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1986
D Union Carbide v. Union of India, 1984
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental duties (Article 51A, Part IVA) were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976). They include respecting the Constitution, national flag, defending India, promoting harmony, and protecting the environment.

30. Article 48A and Article 51A (g) were inserted in the Constitution by
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1978
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
C The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1978
D The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, the three types of negotiable instruments are: promissory notes (S.4), bills of exchange (S.5), and cheques (S.6). Each has specific formal requirements for validity.

31. According to Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 “environmental pollutant” means
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
B any substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
C any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to a person
D any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to the society
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, a temporary injunction (Order XXXIX) can be granted at any stage to preserve the status quo. The three tests are: prima facie case, balance of convenience, and irreparable injury.

32. A is in possession of property claimed by Band C adversely. A does not claim any interest in the property and is ready to deliver it to the rightful owner. A can institute_____suit
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Friendly
B Caveat
Interpleader
D Restitution
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, implied conditions include: seller's right to sell (S.14), goods corresponding to description (S.15), merchantable quality and fitness (S.16), and correspondence with sample (S.17).

33. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 months
B 3 months
C 1 year
3 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, electronic records are admissible under Section 65B with a certificate. The Anvar P.V. case (2014) made the S.65B certificate mandatory for all electronic evidence.

34. The police officer executing the warrant may use adequate force to access the place where search is to be conducted when
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A free ingress is not possible
B The occupant of the place is a hardened criminal and there is possibility to escape
C The area is in such a nature that problem may arise at any time
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, Class I heirs of a Hindu male include: son, daughter, widow, mother, son of predeceased son, daughter of predeceased son, etc. They take simultaneously, excluding all other heirs.

35. As per the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, in case of merger of the complaint with the police report the procedure to be followed for the trial shall be of______
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The complaint case
The case instituted on the police report
C Both as per the convenience during the trial
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CrPC, a First Information Report (FIR) under S.154 is the first step in criminal law machinery. It must be recorded for cognizable offences — the police cannot refuse to register it.

36. Peek v. Gurney is a famous case relating to
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Mistake
Misrepresentation
C Fraud
D Frustration of contract
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 21 guarantees right to life and personal liberty. It has been expansively interpreted to include: right to livelihood, shelter, health, education, privacy, dignity, and clean environment.

37. Law is conceived as a form of the power value-conceived by
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bentham and Austin
B Hart
C. Lasswell and McDougal
D Karl Olivecrona
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance (S.10) is granted when monetary compensation is inadequate. The court considers: fairness of contract, hardship, plaintiff's conduct, and whether damages would suffice.

38. The development of the tradition of natural justice into one of natural law is usually attributed to the
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Stoics
B Positivists
C Historical School
D Analytical School
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'lockout' (S.2(l)) means closing a place of employment by the employer to compel workmen to accept their terms. It is the employer's counterpart to a strike by workers.

39. The requirement to give reasons in administrative decisions which affect rights and liabilities has been held to be mandatory by the Supreme Court in______
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India
B State of Orissa v. Dr. Binapani Devi
C State of Maharashtra v. Jalgaon Municipal Council
D Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P .
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is mandatory. Section 140 establishes no-fault liability — compensation for death/permanent disability regardless of fault, limited to specified amounts.

40. Donoughmore Committee Report on Minister’s Powers, 1932, relates to
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
England
B Australia
C USA
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, dying declarations (S.32(1)) are admissible as exceptions to the hearsay rule. The declarant need not have been under expectation of death — any statement about cause of death qualifies.

41. Section 47(3), Motor Vehicles Act empowers the Regional Transport Authority to limit the number of stage carriage permits. Explain the nature of the function exercised.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A This is a judicial function, as the Authority’s decision is based on an official policy.
B This is a quasi-judicial function, as the Authority’s decision is based on an official policy.
This is an administrative function, as the Authority’s decision is based on an official policy
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the CPC, Order XXXIX deals with temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders. The court can grant injunction to restrain the defendant from committing acts that would injure the plaintiff's rights.

42. In which famous case this issue had come up. Whether the advocate had committed a professional misconduct and is guilty of the offence of the criminal contempt of the Court for having interfered with and obstructed the course of justice by trying to threaten, overawe and overbear the Court by using insulting, disrespectful and threatening language
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Vinay Chandra Mishra, In Re
B Ex-Caps Harish Uppal v. Union of India
C Hikmat Ali Khan v. Ishwar Prasad Arya and Ors.
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'transfer of property' (S.5) means an act by which a living person conveys property to another living person or to themselves. It includes sale, mortgage, lease, exchange, and gift.

43. “Misconduct” would cover any activity or conduct which his professional brethren of good repute and competency would reasonably regard as disgraceful or dishonourable. It may be noted that the scope of “misconduct” is not restricted by technical interpretations of rules of conduct. This was proven conclusively in the case of
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Noratanmal Chourasia v. M.R. Murali
Bar Council of Maharashtra v. M. V. Dahbolkar
C In N.G . Dastane v. Shrikant S. Shinde
D B.M. Verma v. Uttarakhand Regulatony Commission
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Seventh Schedule contains three lists: Union List (central subjects), State List (state subjects), and Concurrent List (shared subjects). The distribution of legislative power follows these lists.

44. Retention of money deposited with advocate for the decree-holder even after execution proceedings was held as an instance of misconduct in which case
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A In Re D.C. Saxena
B M. Veerendra Rao v. Tek Chand
C Shambhu Ram Yadav v. Hanuman Das Khatry
Prahlad Saran Gupta v. Bar Council of India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a 'prospectus' is an invitation to the public to subscribe to a company's shares/debentures. It must contain specified disclosures about the company's finances, directors, and business.

45. In which case, where the advocate of one of the parties was asking for continuous adjournments to the immense inconvenience of the opposite party, it was held by the Supreme Court that seeking adjournments for postponing the examination of witnesses who were present without making other arrangements for examining such witnesses is a dereliction of the duty that an advocate owed to the Court, amounting to misconduct
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
N.G . Dastane v. Shrikant S. Shin de
B Shambhu Ram Yadav v. Hanuman Das Khatry
C Noratanmal Chaurasia v. M.R. Murali
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'fraud' (S.17) includes: false suggestion of fact, active concealment, promise without intent to perform, any act to deceive, and any act declared fraudulent by law.

46. The judgment in ________skews the delicate balance, carefully crafted by the Model Law (and enshrined in Section 34), between finality of arbitral awards on one hand and permissible judicial review on the other.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Renu Sagar Power Co. v. General Electric Corporation
ONGC v. Saw Pipes Ltd.
C Sundaram Finance v. NEPC
D Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meena Vijay Khetan
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CPC, 'mesne profits' (S.2(12)) are profits received by a person in wrongful possession from the rightful owner — what was actually received or could have been received with ordinary diligence.

47. Supreme Court in _________held that irrespective of where the ‘central management and control is exercised’ by a company, companies incorporated in India, cannot choose foreign law as the governing law of their arbitration.
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
TDM Infrastructure (P) Ltd. v. UE Development India (P) Ltd.
B Corned Chemicals Ltd. v. CN. Ramchand
C Shreejee Traco (I) Pvt. Ltd. v. Paperline International Inc.
D Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IT Act, cyber offences include: unauthorized access (S.43), hacking (S.66), identity theft (S.66C), cheating by personation (S.66D), and cyber terrorism (S.66F). Penalties vary by severity.

48. Which Section of the 1996 Arbitration Act permits’ the parties to engage in conciliation process even while the arbitral proceedings are on?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 30
B Section 10
C Section 40
D Section 20
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'admission' (S.17) is a statement suggesting an inference about a fact in issue, made by a party or their agent. Admissions are not conclusive but may operate as estoppel.

49. Where territorial jurisdiction of a court is transferred after passing a decree, an execution application may be filed
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A In the court which had passed the decree
B In the Court to which territorial jurisdiction was transferred only
In either of the court under (A) or (B)
D In any court in India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, grounds for divorce (S.13) include: adultery, cruelty, desertion (2+ years), conversion, unsound mind, leprosy, venereal disease, renunciation, and not heard alive (7 years).

50. When a decree is transferred for execution to another court and if the decree- holder has reasons to apprehend that the judgment-debtor will dispose of the property before it is attached by the other court, he may apply to the court which passed the decree to issue a __ to attach the property at once.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Caveat
B Restitution order
Attachment order
D Precept
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 32 provides the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights through writs. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.

51. Where the right to the discovery or the inspection sought depends on the determination of any issue in the suit, the court may try that issue as a before deciding upon the right to discovery or inspection
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Special issue
Preliminary issue
C Res Judicata
D Res sub judice
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Partnership Act, every partner is an agent of the firm (mutual agency). Each partner can bind the firm by acts done in the ordinary course of business — this is implied authority.

52. Identify a case where set off can be pleaded
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Claim for unliquidated damages
Suit for recovery of ascertained sum of money
C Suit for a sum legally non-recoverable
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CrPC, bail provisions differ for bailable offences (bail as right, S.436) and non-bailable offences (bail at court's discretion, S.437). Anticipatory bail is under S.438.

53. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is ______from the date on which it becomes due
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
1 year
B 5 years
C 6 years
D 15 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, limitation periods vary: recovery of money (3 years), immovable property suits (12 years), mortgage suits (30 years). The cause of action determines when limitation begins.

54. Section 41B is incorporated into the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which of the following decisions
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Nandini Satpati v. P.L. Dani
B Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
C Prem Shankar Shuklao. DelhiAdministration
D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the Central Government has power to take all measures necessary to protect the environment. This includes setting standards, restricting industries, and imposing penalties.

55. Chapter dealing with Plea Bargaining, has been inserted by
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1993
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
C The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001
D The Code of Criminal (Amendment) Act, 1993
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, only Hindus can adopt Hindus. Section 11 prescribes conditions: child must be Hindu, unmarried, under 15 (unless custom permits), and not already adopted.

56. As per the Criminal Procedure Code, during investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Judicial officer
B Any Person
The Investigating Officer
D Any Police Officer
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 19(1) guarantees six freedoms to citizens: speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. Each has reasonable restriction grounds in Articles 19(2)-(6).

57. Prosecution for the offence of defamation can be initiated only
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
On the complaint of the aggrieved party
B On the basis of an F.I.R.
C On the basis of a police report
D If it is a matter related to domestic affairs of a family
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the CPC, Section 100 provides for second appeal to the High Court — but ONLY on substantial questions of law. No second appeal lies on questions of fact or mixed questions of fact and law.

58. “Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability”. J. Krishna lyer in which case declared so?
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Chandramalai Estate v. Its Workmen
B Associated Cement Ltd. v. Their Workmen
Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
D Indian General Navigation Railway Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, a 'bailment' (S.148) is delivery of goods for a purpose with return when purpose is accomplished. The bailor delivers, the bailee receives. Ownership doesn't transfer.

59. Entry No. 22 of the Concurrent List deals with_____
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Social security and insurance, employment and unemployment
B Industrial disputes concerning Union employees
Trade unions and industrial and labour disputes
D Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the CrPC, Section 313 requires the court to examine the accused after prosecution evidence is complete. The accused must be given opportunity to explain incriminating circumstances — this is mandatory.

60. Which Article under the Constitution of India talks about the participation of workers in the management of Industries?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 43
43A
C 43B
D 42
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, directive principles (Part IV) guide state policy but are not enforceable by courts. They complement fundamental rights and aim at establishing a welfare state.

61. Pick out the case that is popularly called as the Solicitor’s Case.
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ahmedabad Textile Industry’s Research Association v. State of Bombay
B National Union of Commercial Employees v. Industrial Tribunal, Bombay
Salem Advocates Bar Association v. Union of India
D Central Machine Tools Institute v. Dy. Registrar of Trade Unions
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, a 'holder in due course' (S.9) is a person who acquires the instrument for consideration, before maturity, without notice of defect in title. They get better title than the transferor.

62. Identify the case that is related to the need for promotion and preservation of internal democracy within trade unions
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Jay Engineering Works Ltd. v. State of West Bengal
B Railway Union v. Registrar of Trade Unions
ONCC Workmen’ s, Association v. State of West Bengal
D Hanumantha Rao v. Dy. Registrar of Trade Unions
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'sale' (S.54) is transfer of ownership in exchange for price. For immovable property worth Rs. 100+, it must be by registered instrument.

63. In tort, there are two broad categories of activities for which a plaintiff may be held strictly liable
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Possession of certain animals and abnormally dangerous activities
B Assault and battery
C Battery and negligence
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IPC, 'culpable homicide' (S.299) becomes 'murder' (S.300) based on degree of intention and probability of death. The distinction is critical — murder carries death/life imprisonment, while culpable homicide carries up to 10 years.

64. What is the period of limitation prescribed for the suit instituted by a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property mortgaged?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 3 years
B 10 years
C 30 years
12 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'burden of proof' (S.101) lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given. The general rule: who asserts must prove. Specific presumptions can shift the burden.

65. Sections 12-15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provide for exclusion of time in computing the period of limitation prescribed by law. Which of the following falls inside the ambit of exclusion?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Day on which judgment/order/award is pronounced
B Time during which stay/injunction operated
C Time during which the defendant had been out of India
All the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a company's 'memorandum of association' defines its relationship with the outside world — name, registered office, objects, liability, and capital clauses.

66. Provisions regarding Corporate Social Responsibility are incorporated in the Companies Act, 2013 under
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 101
B Section 111
Section 135
D Section 235
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 'unfair trade practice' includes: false representation about goods/services, misleading advertisements, offering gifts/prizes with no intention to provide, and hoarding/destroying goods.

67. What is Corporate Social Responsibility among the following?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Employee benefits
Project-based protection of national heritage
C Programs undertaken outside India
D Mere donations
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, a 'decree' (S.2(2)) is the formal expression of adjudication that conclusively determines the rights of parties. It must be in a suit — orders in miscellaneous proceedings are not decrees.

68. Talak-e-tafwiz is
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Talak by delegation
B Triple Talak
C Talak by agreement
D Improper Talak
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the Collector plays a central role — issuing notices, conducting hearings, making awards, and disbursing compensation. The Collector's award can be challenged in court.

69. Any immovable property possessed by a female Hindu, acquired before or after the commencement of Hindu Succession Act, shall be held by her after the commencement of the Act as
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A limited owner
A full owner
C No ownership
D Not as absolute owner
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'coercion' (S.15) means committing or threatening to commit an act forbidden by IPC, or unlawfully detaining/threatening to detain any property, to cause the other party to enter into an agreement.

70. Who was the founder of Analytical School of Law?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Jhering
Bentham
C John Austin
D August Comte
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CrPC, Section 482 preserves the inherent power of the High Court to make orders necessary for ends of justice or to prevent abuse of court process. This power is extraordinary and used sparingly.

71. There was a contract to supply oil-seeds. But the Government rendered the sale and purchase of oil-seed illegal under the Defence of India Rules. Identify the effect
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Party at default is held liable
Both parties are discharged from the performance of such contract
C Both parties are directed specific performance of the contract
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental rights (Part III, Articles 12-35) are enforceable against the state. They protect individual liberty and can be enforced through writ jurisdiction under Articles 32 and 226.

72. Principles evolved in Hadley v. Baxendale are the basis of Section _____of the Indian Contract Act.
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 74
B 55
C 87
73
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 'cruelty' (S.13(1)(ia)) includes both physical and mental cruelty. The SC has held that conduct must be of such nature that the petitioner cannot reasonably be expected to live with the respondent.

73. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states thus: If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by______, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Application
B Restitution application
Suit
D Reference
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, Section 45 makes expert opinions relevant on matters of foreign law, science, art, handwriting, and finger impressions. The expert must have special skill or training in the relevant field.

74. As per the Specific Relief Act, 1963, identify the situation wherein any person interested in a contract may sue to have it rescinded, and such rescission may be adjudged by the court
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Where the contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff;
B Where the contract is unlawful for causes not apparent on its face and the defendant is more to blame than the plaintiff
Both (A) and (B)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Arbitration Act, Section 11 provides for appointment of arbitrators. If parties fail to agree, the court (SC for international, HC for domestic) can appoint. The tribunal should preferably have odd number of arbitrators.

75. A/An________is one which is drawn by one person and accepted by another, without consideration, merely to enable the drawer to raise money on the bill by discounting it.
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bills in sets
B Documentary bill
C Bearer instrument
Accommodation bill
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the IPC, 'theft' (S.378) requires: dishonest intention, movable property, moving the property out of possession, without consent of the possessor. Taking with honest belief of right is not theft.

76. Which provision of the Negotiable Instruments Act discusses about material alteration of an instrument and its effects
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 77
B Section 88
Section 87
D Section 78
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, a consumer can file a complaint about defective goods, deficient services, unfair trade practices, or restrictive trade practices. The limitation period is 2 years.

77. A transfers property to B for life, and after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them, or to the survivor of them. C dies during the lifetime of B. D survives B. At B’s death
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The property passes to D
B The property reverts back to A’s heirs
C The property is declared as having no owner
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the CPC, Order XXI governs execution of decrees — attachment, sale, arrest, delivery of possession, appointment of receiver. The decree-holder must apply for execution within the limitation period.

78. A transfer Rs. 500 to his niece C, if she will desert her husband. The transfer is
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
V oid
B V oidable
C Valid
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'undue influence' (S.16) exists when one party is in a position to dominate the other's will and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage. The burden of proof is on the dominant party.

79. Leading questions can be asked during
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Re-examination
B Examination-in-chief
Cross-examination
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Governor has the power to grant pardons under Article 161 for offences against state laws. This is analogous to the President's pardoning power under Article 72 for central offences.

80. Estoppel is a rule by which a party to litigation is/are_____
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Stopped from asserting or denying, a fact
B Prevented from appearing in person
C Prevented from hiding an evidence
D Both (A) and (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'gift' (S.122) is transfer of movable/immovable property voluntarily without consideration. For immovable property, it must be by registered instrument; for movable, by delivery.

81. Under Section 122 of the Evidence Act, a communication made to the spouse during marriage
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death
B Does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce, but remains privileged even after death
C Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
Remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'estoppel' (S.115) prevents a person from denying the truth of anything they have previously represented as true, if another person has acted on that representation to their detriment.

82. Which provision under the Criminal Procedure Code reflects the principle of autrefois acquit/autrefois convict
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 300
B Section 305
C Section 306
D Section 311
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IPC, Section 34 deals with common intention — when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention, each is liable as if they alone did the act.

83. Mare Liberum (The Freedom of the Seas), first published in 1609, is a book in Latin on international law written by
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Austin
Hugo Grotius
C Arvid Pardo
D Starke
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CrPC, the Magistrate has power to order investigation under S.156(3) — this is an important remedy when the police refuse to register an FIR or fail to investigate properly.

84. The Indian who is presently a member of International Court of Justice
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Justice A.S. Anand
B Justice Bhagwati
Justice Dalveer Bhandari
D Justice Nagendra Singh
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, 'coparcenary' property is joint family property in which coparceners (father and sons/daughters after 2005) have birthright. It devolves by survivorship, not succession.

85. International Criminal Court is based on
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Rio Conference
Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
C Part of U.N. Charter
D Yugoslavakia Statute of the International Criminal Court
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, 'declaratory decree' (S.34) declares the legal status of a person or their right to property. The plaintiff must have a subsisting legal character or right to property.

86. Constitutive and declaratory theories of state relate to
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Law of the Sea
B Law of Air Space
C Law of Outer Space
State Recognition
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 14 guarantees 'equality before law' (negative concept — no special privilege) and 'equal protection of laws' (positive concept — equal treatment in equal circumstances).

87. Tabula rasa under International Law relates to
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A State Recognition
B Universal Succession
State Succession
D Sources of International Law
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the CPC, 'res judicata' (S.11) bars re-litigation of issues already decided between the same parties. The doctrine promotes finality, prevents contradictory judgments, and saves judicial resources.

88. With reference to Cyber Crimes worm attack _______
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A needs the virus to attack
B do not need the virus to attack
C needs the host to attack
do not need the host to attack
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'mistake' can be: mutual mistake of essential fact (agreement void, S.20), unilateral mistake (generally not void, S.22), or mistake of law (no relief, S.21).

89. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication - is known as
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Salami Attacks
Phishing
C Data diddling
D Forgery
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the CrPC, the Magistrate must record reasons for granting or refusing bail. For non-bailable offences, the court considers: nature of accusation, severity of punishment, evidence strength, and flight risk.

90. The Act to provide legal recognition for the transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication, commonly referred to as “Electronic Commerce” is dealt under
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Information Technology Act
B Information and Communication Technology Act
C Information Communication Act
D Information and Cyber Space Act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Income Tax Act, 'assessment year' is the 12-month period starting April 1 in which income of the previous year is assessed and taxed. Income earned in 2023-24 is assessed in AY 2024-25.

91. “Asymmetric Crypto System” under Information Technology Act means a system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A an individual key to verify the digital signature
B a lock to verify the digital signature
a public key to verify the digital signature
D a Government key to verify the digital signature
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Preamble declares India as sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. It secures justice (social, economic, political), liberty, equality, and fraternity.

92. Section 43A of the Information Technology Act deals with
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Compensation for failure to protect data
B Punishment for sending offensive messages
C Identity Theft
D Impersonation
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the CPC, attachment before judgment (Order XXXVIII) can be ordered when the defendant is about to dispose of property to obstruct or delay execution. It is a preventive measure to secure the decree.

93. The persons taking part in the commission of an offence have been divided into two classes. They are-
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Principal and abettors
B Principle and disciples
C Principal and accessory
D Debtor and holder
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IT Act, 'intermediary' (S.2(w)) includes ISPs, search engines, social media platforms, and cyber cafes. Section 79 provides safe harbour — intermediaries not liable for third-party content if they follow due diligence.

94. Who authored the book The First Principles of Jurisprudence
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Salmond
B Black Stone
C Austin
D Winfield
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'retrenchment' (S.2(oo)) means termination of service for any reason other than punishment. Conditions apply: notice, compensation (15 days' wages per year of service), and last-come-first-go.

95. A issued a warrant to a police officer to arrest P. But the officer arrests Q after the due inquiry believing Q to be P. Here
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A P is liable for criminal negligence
P has committed no offence by virtue of Section 76 IPC
C P has committed an offence of wrongful confinement
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the polluter pays principle requires the polluting industry to bear the cost of pollution prevention and remediation. This was applied by the SC in Vellore Citizens' case (1996).

96. Durham doctrine means
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A That an accused is not criminally liable if his unlawful act is the product of immature understanding due to immature age
That an accused is not criminally liable if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect
C That an accused is criminally liable if his unlawful act even if it is the product of mental disease or mental defect
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Durham doctrine (or Durham rule) is a criminal insanity test from Durham v. United States (1954). It provides that an accused is not criminally responsible if their unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect. Broader than McNaughten rules.

97. De minimus non curat lex implies
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A Every person is liable for his own acts
Trifling acts do not constitute an offence
C Necessity knows no law
D Nothing is an offence which is done in private defence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

'De minimis non curat lex' means 'the law does not concern itself with trifles.' Courts will not entertain claims for trivial or insignificant matters. This maxim prevents waste of judicial time on petty disputes.

98. P and Q agree to commit theft in R’s house, but no theft is actually committed. Here R and Q are guilty of
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A Abetment of conspiracy
B Abetment of instigation
C No offence
Criminal conspiracy
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

When P and Q agree to commit theft in R's house, the agreement itself constitutes criminal conspiracy under Section 120A IPC. Both are liable even if the theft is never actually committed — the agreement alone is the offence.

99. Ramu is suffering from disease of the heart. Rahul his heir rushes into his room and shouts in his ear “your house has been destroyed by fire” intending thereby to kill Ramu. Ramu dies of the shock. Here Rahul is liable for the offence of
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A Attempt to murder
B Murder
Culpable homicide
D Abetment to murder
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

When Ramu, suffering from a disease, causes death while performing a dangerous act, he may be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder (S.299/304 IPC) if he knew the act was likely to cause death but lacked the specific intention required for murder under S.300.

100. The doctrine of civil conspiracy was enunciated by the House of Lords in
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A Walsby v. Anley
B Moghul Steamship Company v. Mc. Gregor Gow and Company
C Allen v. Flood
Quinn v. Leathern
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

The doctrine of civil conspiracy was enunciated by the House of Lords in Quinn v. Leathem (1901). It held that a combination of two or more persons to willfully damage another without lawful justification is an actionable tort.