AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE XII — June 2018

AIBE XII — June 2018 — Complete Questions with Answers

95 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 June 2018
1. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Any public spirited person
B NGO or Association with public spirit
C Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

PIL can be filed by any public-spirited person, NGO, association, or group without personal interest — all three categories are valid. The key requirement is genuine public interest, not personal gain.

2. Doctrine of ‘Pleasure’ applies to:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Legislative
Civil Servants
C Judges
D Cabinet Ministers
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Doctrine of Pleasure under Article 310 applies to civil servants — they hold office during the pleasure of the President (central) or Governor (state). Subject to safeguards under Articles 311 and 312, they can be removed at the pleasure of the executive.

3. Articles of a company can be altered by:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The directors of the company
B The officials of the company
C Shareholders by passing an ordinary resolution
Shareholders by passing a special resolution
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Articles of Association can be altered only by shareholders passing a special resolution (75% majority). Directors or company officials cannot alter the articles on their own authority. Section 14 of the Companies Act governs this process.

4. Article 361 provides:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Authority to Union Government to dismiss the State Governments
B Authority to the State Governments to pass legislation
Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in Courts
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 361

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Article 361 provides protection to the President and Governors from court proceedings during their term of office. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against them, and no civil suit for personal acts can be filed without 2 months' notice.

5. Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 298 of IPC
B Section 296 of IPC
C Section 297 of IPC
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 295A

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 295A IPC deals with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings. Uttering words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments falls under this provision, punishable with up to 3 years imprisonment.

6. Under Section 320(1), Cr.P.c. for criminal intimidation, which section of IPC is applicable:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 503
B 504
C 505
506
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 320(1)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 320(1) CrPC lists offences that are compoundable without court permission. Criminal intimidation (S.506 IPC) is compoundable by the person intimidated — meaning the parties can settle without court intervention.

7. Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanism:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bar Council of India
B Election Commission
C Comptroller and Auditor General
Lok Adalat
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Lok Adalat is considered an innovative form of ADR unique to India. It combines elements of adjudication and mediation — the Lok Adalat bench guides parties toward compromise, and its award is deemed a civil court decree with no appeal.

8. Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Father
Brother
C The executor appointed by father
D Grand father
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of a Hindu minor's property is: for a boy/unmarried girl — the father, then mother; for an illegitimate child — the mother, then father. A step-parent is NOT a legal guardian.

9. Indian Evidence Act was enacted in:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1972
1872
C 1955
D 1986
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Indian Evidence Act was enacted in 1872 and came into force on 1st September 1872. It was drafted by Sir James Fitzjames Stephen and codified the law of evidence for British India.

10. Which is the correct statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
B An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or irn proper means
C An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under BCI Rules, an advocate must maintain professional ethics including: not advertising, not soliciting work, maintaining court decorum, keeping client confidences, not acting in conflict of interest, and upholding the dignity of the profession.

11. Droite Administration is a system of administration
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
French system
B British system
C American system
D Irish system
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Droit administratif is the French system of administrative law where separate administrative courts (not ordinary courts) adjudicate disputes between citizens and the state. India follows the Anglo-Saxon/British system where ordinary courts handle administrative disputes.

12. Which Act is covering the Cyber Crimes
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Indian Telecommunication Act
B Indian Penal Code
C Indian Evidence Act
Information Technology Act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Information Technology Act, 2000 covers cybercrimes in India. It provides for offences like hacking (S.66), identity theft (S.66C), cheating by personation (S.66D), cyber terrorism (S.66F), and publication of obscene material (S.67).

13. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1950
1951
C 1967
D 1975
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The First Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 1951. It added Articles 31A, 31B and the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform legislation from judicial review, and also amended Article 19 to allow reasonable restrictions on free speech.

14. A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 107 of IPC
B of IPC
C Section 114 of IPC
D Section 144 of IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 107, 109

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

A person who instigates another to commit an offence is an abettor under Section 109 IPC. Instigation is one of three forms of abetment (along with conspiracy and intentional aid). The abettor is liable even if the offence is not ultimately committed.

15. A landmark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is in:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The landmark Habeas Corpus case during the Emergency was ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976). The SC controversially held (4:1) that fundamental rights including Article 21 stood suspended during Emergency. Justice Khanna's sole dissent is historic.

17. Under the Companies Act, every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 100 shares
B 20 shares
C 10 shares
1 share
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, every subscriber to the Memorandum of Association must take at least one share. This mandatory subscription ensures that the founders have financial commitment to the company they are incorporating.

18. GST came into force from
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1st January, 2017
B 1st April, 2017
1st July, 2017
D 1st August, 2017
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

GST (Goods and Services Tax) came into force from 1st July 2017, replacing multiple indirect taxes (excise, VAT, service tax, etc.) with a unified tax system. The 101st Constitutional Amendment provided the constitutional framework.

20. The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Stockholm Conference
B The Nairobi Conference
C The Vienna Conference
The Rio De Janeiro Conference
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was the outcome of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development). It established the framework for international climate negotiations.

21. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Wealth Tax Act, 1957
B GST
Income Tax Act, 1961
D Finance Act, 1992
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under Section 139A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Every person whose total income exceeds the taxable limit must obtain PAN. It is a 10-character alphanumeric identifier for tax purposes.

22. A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is_____:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Irregular
B V oid
C V oidable
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Muslim law, a marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat period is irregular (fasid), not void (batil). Iddat is the mandatory waiting period after divorce or husband's death before the woman can remarry.

23. Section 10 of the CPC provides for:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Stay of the suit
B Summoning witness
C Examination of witness
D Sentencing the judgment
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 10

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 10 CPC provides for stay of suit (res sub-judice). When a previously instituted suit on the same matter between same parties is pending in a competent court, the later suit is stayed to prevent parallel proceedings.

24. Who is prevented from being testified u/ s. 118 of Indian Evidence Act:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
B Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
C A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, every person is competent to testify unless the court finds they cannot understand questions or give rational answers due to tender years, extreme old age, disease of body or mind, or similar cause.

25. Supreme Court decided in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India:
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Relating to the President Rule in state
B Relating to the illegal detention
C Relating to the right to clean environment
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

In S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the SC laid down guidelines for President's Rule under Article 356. It held that Article 356 is subject to judicial review and the President's satisfaction must be based on objective material, not political considerations.

26. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1986
B 1988
1991
D 1997
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification was issued by the Central Government under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It regulates activities in coastal stretches to protect fragile coastal ecosystems.

27. Who is lawful guardian:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A person who in law represents the minor
B A person who has been appointed by the Court
C A person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, a lawful guardian includes: natural guardian (father/mother), testamentary guardian (appointed by will), and guardian appointed by court. The court-appointed guardian acts under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890.

28. Who is a protected workman
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Workman given police protection during labour strike
B Workman protected by insurance coverage
Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
D Workman protected from being arrested by a Court order
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

A 'protected workman' under Section 33(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act means a workman who is a member of the executive/office-bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment. During pendency of proceedings, such workmen get extra protection against discharge/dismissal.

29. A trademark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A word
B A device
C A label
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

A trademark is a visual symbol (word, name, device, label, numerals, combination of colours) applied to articles of commerce to distinguish them from similar goods of others. It indicates the origin/source of goods and builds brand identity.

30. The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of Alternate Dispute Resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Legal Services Corporation Act, 1974
B Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1949
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
D None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 89 CPC recognizes four ADR methods: arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (Lok Adalat), and mediation. These represent the formal, institutional framework for dispute resolution outside traditional court litigation.

31. Shah Bano case was related to:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Dowry demand
B Harassment at work place
Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
D Triple divorce of Muslim Women
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Shah Bano case (1985) was related to maintenance of divorced Muslim women. The SC held that S.125 CrPC (secular maintenance provision) applies to Muslim women, and a divorced Muslim wife is entitled to maintenance from her ex-husband beyond the iddat period.

32. Who is garnishee
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
B A borrower arrested for defaulting
C A person who cannot repay a bank loan
D A person who mortgaged his farm land
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A garnishee is a third party who is instructed by court order to surrender money or property belonging to a debtor to satisfy a judgment debt. The garnishee order directs the third party to pay the creditor directly instead of paying the debtor.

33. Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the Court:
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Tahsildar
B The Sub-Collector
C The Deputy Collector
The Collector
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and turn to Section 18

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Land Acquisition Act, 1894 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, any person interested who has not accepted the award may require the matter to be referred to the court for determination. This is the mechanism for challenging inadequate compensation.

34. For Specific Performance of a contract, suit is to be instituted in
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
3 years
B 3 months
C 6 months.
D No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

For specific performance of a contract, the suit must be instituted within the limitation period prescribed by the Limitation Act, 1963 — typically 3 years from the date fixed for performance, or if no date is fixed, when the plaintiff has notice of refusal.

35. Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 2(1)(b)
B (b) Section 20
C Section 21
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and turn to Section 2(5) CPA 2019

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Consumer Protection Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 'complainant' is defined to include: the consumer, any recognized consumer association, the Central/State Government, one or more consumers with permission of the forum, and legal heirs of a deceased consumer.

36. Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the code of civil procedure?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Order 12, Rule 1
B Order 17, Rule 10
C Order 33, Rule 18
Order 35, Rule 1
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Order XXXV Rule 1

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Order XXXV CPC deals with interpleader suits — suits where the plaintiff holds property claimed by two or more defendants and has no personal interest in it. Rule 1 prescribes the form of the plaint in interpleader suits.

37. The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act. In which case the order was passed:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Handa v. Handa (AIR 1955)
Dr. Many v. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
C Peter v. Anglina (AIR 1992)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

In Dr. Mary Sheila v. Dr. Vincent (1991), the court held that Family Courts have concurrent jurisdiction with other courts to pass decrees for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act. This extended Family Court powers to Christian divorces.

38. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 25
B Section 33
Section 35
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 35

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 35 of the Advocates Act deals with punishment for professional misconduct. The State Bar Council's disciplinary committee can reprimand, suspend, or remove an advocate from the roll after due inquiry.

40. Under section 239 Cr.P.C., the Magistrate can:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Frame charges against the accused person
Discharge the accused if charges are groundless
C Open trial for evidence
D Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 239

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 239 CrPC, in warrant trial cases, if the Magistrate considers the charge groundless after hearing the prosecution and examining the accused, the Magistrate can discharge the accused. This prevents baseless prosecutions from continuing.

41. Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
When the State legislature is not in session
B During the course of legislature session
C On the recommendation of the State cabinet
D With the permission of the Union government
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 213

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session, if circumstances require immediate action. The ordinance has the same force as a law passed by the Legislature but must be laid before it when it reassembles.

42. A person arrested should not be detained more than:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 48 hours
24 hours
C 14 days
D 90 days
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Article 22(2), a person arrested must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding travel time). Detention beyond 24 hours without Magistrate's authorization is unconstitutional.

43. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Son who is a minor
B Daughter who is not married
C Grand parents
An illegitimate son
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Muslim law, a Muslim woman who has been divorced and has remarried is not entitled to maintenance from her former husband. Once she enters a new marriage, the previous husband's maintenance obligation ceases completely.

44. In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The Petitioner
B The Respondents
C The State Government
D The Court
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

In civil cases, the Indian Evidence Act places the burden of proof on the party who asserts a fact — 'he who asserts must prove.' Under Section 101, the burden lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given on either side.

45. In which of the following of section 59, Cr.P.C., the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A On his own bond
B On ball
C Under special order of the Magistrate
All of them
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 59

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 59 CrPC, discharge of a person apprehended without warrant relates to the power of the police to release a person on bond or bail when the offence is bailable and the investigation can proceed without detention.

46. Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Dispute between employers and employers
B Dispute between employers and workman
C Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non- employment
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

'Industrial dispute' under Section 2(k) of the ID Act means any dispute between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, or between employers and employers, connected with employment or conditions of labour.

48. Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The parties must be competent to contract
B There must be mental consent
C There must be a transfer of property
There must be an agreement to sell
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

For a valid sale under the Sale of Goods Act, the essentials are: parties competent to contract, subject matter (goods), price (money consideration), transfer of property (ownership). The option that is NOT an essential is the answer.

49. “Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law.” In which case Supreme Court made this remark:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
D.K. Basu v. State of Bengal
D Vishakha v. State of Rajas than
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The quote 'Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society' comes from D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997). The SC laid down 11 guidelines for police to follow during arrest and detention.

50. Doctrine of “LIS PENDENS” is given under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 41
Section 52
C Section 53
D Section 53A
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Transfer of Property Act, 1882 and turn to Section 52

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Transfer of Property Act, 1882 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The doctrine of Lis Pendens is given under Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act. It provides that during pendency of a suit involving immovable property, the property cannot be transferred to defeat the rights of any party to the suit.

51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It is a true law
B It has vertical structure
C It has well established institutes of governance
It has formal law enforcing agencies
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, character evidence in civil cases is generally irrelevant (S.52) unless the character of a person is itself a fact in issue. In criminal cases, good character is relevant for the accused (S.53) and bad character may be proved by prosecution (S.54).

52. Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse.
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
This statement is true under Sunni law
B This statement is not true
C Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
D Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of death of the spouse.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Deferred mahr (prompt mahr already paid at marriage) becomes payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of the husband — whichever occurs first. The wife can demand deferred mahr at any time, and it becomes a debt on the husband's estate.

53. Dying declaration must be made by:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The dying person in hospital
B The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
The deceased before death
D Nearest relative of the deceased
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

A dying declaration must be made by the person who is about to die or who has died subsequently. Under Section 32(1) of the Evidence Act, it is the statement of the deceased about the cause of death or circumstances leading to death.

54. Judgment should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open Court:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A By delivering the whole of the judgment
B By reading out the whole of the judgment
C By reading out the operative part of the judgment
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Order XX Rule 1 CPC, judgment should be delivered to the parties or their pleaders within 30 days from the date when arguments are concluded. The court must pronounce judgment in open court.

55. Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 242, Cr.P.C.
B Section 264, Cr.P.C.
C Section 237, Cr.P.C.
D Section 235, Cr.P.C.
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 233

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 233 CrPC deals with evidence for prosecution in warrant trial cases. After framing of charge, the prosecution presents its evidence through examination of witnesses, production of documents, and other evidentiary material.

56. Abetting the Commission of Suicide is given under-
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 9 of IPC
B Section 8 of IPC
C Section 7 of IPC
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 306

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Abetment of suicide is punishable under Section 306 IPC. If any person commits suicide and it is proved that another person abetted the commission of such suicide, the abettor is punished with imprisonment up to 10 years and fine.

57. Recovery of specific immovable property is defined under-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 5 of Specific Relief Act
B of IPC
C Under Section 10 of Sale of Goods Act
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 5

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Recovery of specific immovable property is defined under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. A person entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the CPC.

58. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 deals with:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Revision petition in division bench of High Court
Appeal in Supreme Court
C Return of Wealth Tax
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Wealth Tax Act, 1957 and turn to Section 29

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Wealth Tax Act, 1957 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 deals with the appeals to the Appellate Tribunal. The Wealth Tax Act has since been abolished (2015), but questions based on it may still appear in AIBE covering the pre-abolition period.

59. The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, given immediate _____of any correction made in the award to all the persons included
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Approval
B Stay
C Announcement
Notice
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the Collector must give notice to interested persons about the acquisition proceedings. This ensures that landowners know about the proposed acquisition and can participate in compensation proceedings.

60. “A” is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 80 of IPC
B Section 84 of IPC
C Section 81 of IPC
D Section 85 of IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 80

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This IPC illustration (Section 80) describes a pure accident — A's hatchet head flies off during lawful work and kills someone. Since there was no criminal intent and no negligence, A has committed no offence. It illustrates the defence of accident.

61. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. Union of India (1995) 1 SCC 14. In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
B Abolition of Child Labour
C Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
D Poor Salary of maid servants.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

In Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. UOI (1995), the PIL exposed the plight of domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men. The SC issued directions for compensation and protection of domestic workers from sexual violence.

62. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal recognition to Digital Signature:
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Chapter III
B Chapter IV
C Chapter IX
D Chapter IX and X
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Information Technology Act, 2000 and turn to Chapter III

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Information Technology Act, 2000 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Chapter III of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides legal recognition to digital signatures. It establishes the framework for electronic authentication, making digital signatures legally equivalent to handwritten signatures.

63. The FIR gives information of:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a Police Officer
B Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
The commission of a cognizable crime
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

FIR (First Information Report) under Section 154 CrPC gives information about the commission of a cognizable offence. It sets the criminal law machinery in motion — once an FIR is registered, the police are obligated to investigate.

64. Control over with Subordinate Courts shall be vested in the:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
High Court
B Supreme Court
C Chief Minister
D Governor
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Article 235, control over subordinate courts is vested in the High Court. This includes administrative control over postings, transfers, discipline, and leave of judicial officers in the state judiciary.

65. Section 34 of the CPC provides:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Payment of fine imposed by the Court
B Payment of compensation to the other party
Payment of interest
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 34

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 34 CPC provides for interest — the court may award interest on the principal sum adjudged at a rate the court deems reasonable, from the date of suit to the date of decree, and from decree to realization.

67. According to clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a surety:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A May render himself personally liable
B He ‘may only give a charge upon his property
C He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
All of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and turn to Section 145 CPA 2019

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Consumer Protection Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 145 of the Consumer Protection Act, provisions relating to offences by companies make the person in charge and responsible for the company's conduct liable along with the company. Directors may also be personally liable.

68. Section 49 of Factories Act, 1948 explains about:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Canteen
B Creche
Welfare officer
D Rest room
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Factories Act, 1948 and turn to Section 49

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Factories Act, 1948 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 49 of the Factories Act, 1948 deals with welfare officers. Factories employing 500 or more workers must appoint a welfare officer to look after workers' welfare, handle grievances, and maintain good industrial relations.

69. The word “case” used in Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure is of wide importance:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It means any state of facts juridically considered
B It includes civil proceedings other than suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirely of the proceedings in a civil court
Both (a) and (b)
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 115

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The word 'case' in Section 115 CPC (revision) has been interpreted broadly to include any proceeding — a suit, appeal, execution, or reference. The revisional jurisdiction extends to all 'cases' decided or disposed of by subordinate courts.

70. "A" finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to "B" and appropriates to his own use. "A" is guilty of:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Criminal breach of trust
B Cheating
Criminal misappropriation
D Theft
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

When A finds a purse, discovers it belongs to B, but appropriates it — this is criminal misappropriation under Section 403 IPC. The initial possession was innocent, but dishonest appropriation after discovering the true owner makes it an offence.

71. The word “is not possessed of sufficient means” in Order 33 Rule 1 refer:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A To dower debt due by the petitioner’s husband
To property over which petitioner has actual control
C To sufficient property and excludes sole means livelihoods
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

'Not possessed of sufficient means' in Order XXXIII Rule 1 (pauper suits) refers to property over which the petitioner has actual control — not theoretical property rights. The court looks at what the person actually possesses and controls.

72. Section 22B of Legal Services Authority Act empower the Central and State Authorities to:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Abolish Lok Adalat
B Works of Lok Adalat
C Powers of Lok Adalat or Permanent Lok Adalat
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 and turn to Section 22B

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 22B of the Legal Services Authorities Act empowers the Central and State authorities to establish Permanent Lok Adalats for pre-litigation settlement of disputes relating to public utility services.

73. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders etc. can be corrected:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under Section 151 of CPC
Under Section 152 of CPC
C Under Section 153 of CPC
D Under Section 153A of CPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 152

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 152 CPC, clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees, or orders may be corrected by the court at any time, either on its own motion or on application of the parties. This is not a review — it's merely correcting obvious errors.

74. Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Admissible
B Not admissible
C Challengeable
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A confessional statement recorded under Section 164 CrPC by a Magistrate must be voluntary. The Magistrate must warn the accused that they are not bound to confess and that any confession may be used against them. Police presence is not allowed during recording.

75. Supreme Court has decided in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, that
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution
B Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution
Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the constitution
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the SC held that Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution but cannot alter its basic structure. This 'basic structure doctrine' is the most significant constitutional law development in India.

76. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 40
Section 41
C Section 42
D Section 37
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 154

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 154 CrPC deals with information in cognizable cases — the FIR provision. The SHO must record information about cognizable offences. For non-cognizable offences, S.155 applies (SHO refers to Magistrate).

77. Financial Relations between the State and Centre are defined in Constitution:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Between Articles 245-255
B Between Articles 256-263
Between Articles 264 to 293
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Financial relations between Centre and States are defined in the Constitution under Part XII (Articles 264-300A). This covers distribution of revenues, grants-in-aid, borrowing powers, and the Finance Commission.

78. Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s. 124A of IPC for:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Calling Hartal
B Breaching public peace and tranquility
Sedition and disaffection to the Government
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Mahatma Gandhi was prosecuted under Section 124A IPC (sedition) in 1922 in the famous 'Great Trial' at Ahmedabad. Judge Broomfield sentenced him to 6 years but expressed respect, calling it 'impossible to ignore that you are in a different category from any person I have ever tried.'

79. Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/s. 109 and 110 of Cr.P.C. from:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Habitual offenders
B White collar criminals
C Jail inmates
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question was withdrawn by BCI as it was improperly drafted. Section 109 CrPC covers security from suspected persons; Section 110 covers security from habitual offenders. The correct answer for S.110 alone would be 'habitual offenders.'

80. Dayabhaga school Presumes that “a family because it is joint possesses joint property”?
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A This statement is correct
B This presumption is under Mitakshara School
This statement is incorrect
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The statement that 'a family because it is joint possesses joint property' is a presumption under the Mitakshara school, NOT Dayabhaga. In Dayabhaga (Bengal school), there is no concept of joint property by birth — property rights arise only on the father's death.

81. An appeal against order passed under section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The High Court
The Supreme Court
C The Central Government
D Not Appealable
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and turn to Section 41 / Appeal provision

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Consumer Protection Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, an appeal against an order passed under Section 27 (by the District Forum) lies to the State Commission within 30 days. The appellate hierarchy is: District Forum → State Commission → National Commission → Supreme Court.

82. Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct?
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ethics Committee
B Professional Development Committee
Disciplinary Committee
D High Court
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The State Bar Council's Disciplinary Committee is the body that awards punishments to advocates for professional misconduct. Under Section 35, it can reprimand, suspend, or remove an advocate from the state roll.

83. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalises:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Process of Conciliation
B Process of Arbitration
C Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes the law of conciliation. It provides for appointment of conciliators, conduct of conciliation proceedings, settlement agreements, and the legal status of such agreements.

84. Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in Constitution under Article:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 19
B 21
C 48A
50
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Separation of judiciary from the executive is guaranteed under Article 50 of the Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy). It directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.

85. In camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under section:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 302, IPC
B 307, IPC
376, IPC
D 498A, IPC
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

In camera trial (trial held in private, not open to public) is conducted in cases involving sexual offences, particularly under Sections 376 (rape) and related provisions. Section 327(2) CrPC mandates in camera proceedings for rape trials.

86. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Violate legal right of the victim
Cause damage to the victim
C Obtain benefit for the combiners
D Perfect the interest of combiners
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of the combination must be to cause damage to the plaintiff. Two or more persons combining to injure the plaintiff using unlawful means — the key element is the predominant purpose of causing harm.

87. Cancellation of instrument is mentioned in:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 8-25 of Specific Relief Act
B Section 26 of Specific Relief Act
Section 31-33 of Specific Relief Act
D Section 36-42 of Specific Relief Act
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 31

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Cancellation of instruments is provided under Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Any person against whom a written instrument is void or voidable may sue for its cancellation, and the court may order it if the instrument would cause serious injury if left outstanding.

88. Unfair labour practice by the employers:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Victimization
B False implication in criminal case
C Untrue allegations of absence without leave
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Unfair labour practices by employers are defined in the Fifth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act. They include: interfering with trade union rights, discrimination against union members, refusing to bargain collectively, and victimizing workers.

89. A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 3 year’s from the date of sentencing the judgment
B 3 year’s from the date of release from imprisonment
C 3 year’s from the date of commencing the imprisonment
1 year when the imprisonment ends
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The limitation period for a suit for compensation for false imprisonment is one year from the date of imprisonment, under Article 76 of the Limitation Act, 1963. This is a relatively short period reflecting the urgency of such claims.

90. Rule of Law is defined by:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Jeremy Bentham
B Sir John Salmond
A.V . Dicey
D Prof. Aristotle
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Rule of Law was defined by A.V. Dicey. It encompasses three principles: (1) supremacy of law over arbitrary power, (2) equality before law — no one above the law, (3) the Constitution is a result of individual rights adjudicated by courts.

91. What is the time prescribed for filing of FIR:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Within 24 hours
B Within 48 hours
C Within 14 days of the offence
No time limit is specified
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

There is no specific time limit prescribed for filing an FIR — it should be filed as soon as possible after a cognizable offence occurs. However, delay in filing FIR doesn't make it invalid, though courts scrutinize delayed FIRs more carefully.

92. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A They are a special law within section 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure
B They must take precedence over section 114 or Order 47
Both (a) and (b)
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 145

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Rules framed by the Supreme Court under Article 145 have the force of law. They regulate SC's own procedure, admission of appeals, conditions for appearance of advocates, and other court management matters. They must not be inconsistent with any Act of Parliament.

93. Which section of Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deal with anticipatory breach of contract:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 50
B Section 65
Section 60
D Section 70
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and turn to Section 60

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Sale of Goods Act, 1930 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 60 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with anticipatory breach — when a party to a contract for sale repudiates the contract before the due date of performance, the other party may treat the contract as breached and sue for damages.

94. Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright Act by invoking the provisions:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 13-16
B Section 17-27
Section 63-70
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Copyright Act, 1957 and turn to Sections 63-70

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Copyright Act, 1957 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Criminal proceedings against copyright infringement are enabled under Sections 63-70 of the Copyright Act, 1957. Section 63 provides for punishment of offences — any person who knowingly infringes copyright is punishable with imprisonment (6 months to 3 years) and fine.

95. Which section of Indian Registration Act, 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 11
B Section 13
Section 17
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Registration Act, 1908 and turn to Section 17

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Registration Act, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 17 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 lists documents of which registration is compulsory — including instruments transferring immovable property worth Rs. 100 or more, non-testamentary instruments creating rights in immovable property, and leases exceeding one year.

96. State government’s power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 under section-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
67 of MV Act, 1988
B 68 of MV Act, 1988
C 69 of MV Act, 1988
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

State Government's power to control road transport is provided under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. Chapter VI deals with control of transport vehicles, including permits, routes, fares, and regulatory powers of the State Transport Authority.

97. Which is not a Private Right?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right to Property
B Right to Freedom
C Rights to Education
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Private rights are individual rights enforceable by the holder personally — property rights, contractual rights, right to reputation. The option that represents a PUBLIC right (like right to clean environment, right to use public roads) is NOT a private right.

98. Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61 Cr.P.C.?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It is milder form of process
B It is for appearance
C It is for producing documents or things
All of them
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 61

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 61 CrPC, a summons in a criminal case must be in writing, in duplicate, signed by the presiding officer or authorized officer. It must state the case number, parties, and the date/time/place of appearance.

99. The Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab is a leading case on:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Dying Declaration
B Admission
C Confession
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab (1978) is a leading case on conviction under Section 302/34 IPC — not dying declaration, admission, or confession. The SC discussed the evidentiary standards for conviction based on circumstantial evidence and joint criminal liability.

100. What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act?
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A Recovery of stolen property
B Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
Recovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and turn to Section 138

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 138 NI Act's main objective is recovery of cheque amounts when cheques are dishonoured due to insufficient funds. It creates a criminal liability (imprisonment up to 2 years + fine up to twice the cheque amount) to discourage issuing bad cheques.