96 questions · Correct answers · Bare act strategy · Step-by-step walkthroughs
The 2005 Amendment to the Hindu Succession Act granted daughters coparcenary rights equal to sons, inheritance rights in agricultural land from parents at par with brothers, and inheritance of deceased husband's self-acquired agricultural land. All three statements are correct.
Pick up Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and turn to Section 25
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to verify the answer.
Section 25 HMA provides for permanent alimony and maintenance — awarded after the final decree of divorce/nullity/judicial separation. It is distinct from maintenance pendente lite (S.24) which is interim during proceedings, and custody (S.26).
Pick up Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and turn to Section 18(2)(a)
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
Section 18(2)(a) HAMA entitles a Hindu wife to separate residence and maintenance when the husband is guilty of desertion — abandoning her without reasonable cause, without consent, or willfully neglecting her. Years of non-support while she raises children alone constitutes desertion.
Section 2(b) of the Environment Protection Act defines 'environmental pollutant' as any solid, liquid, or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment. Option (c) correctly captures all three states of matter plus the 'injurious' standard.
The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over civil environmental cases involving substantial questions relating to environment. It cannot exercise jurisdiction over criminal matters — those go to regular criminal courts under the relevant environmental statutes.
Phishing is the fraudulent attempt to acquire sensitive information (usernames, passwords, credit card details) by disguising as a trustworthy entity in electronic communication. It is a form of social engineering attack and a cyber crime under the IT Act.
Plea bargaining under Chapter XXIA CrPC applies only to offences punishable with imprisonment up to 7 years. It excludes: offences punishable with death/life/imprisonment exceeding 7 years, offences against women/children under 14, and socio-economic offences.
Section 195 CrPC bars courts from taking cognizance of certain offences (contempt, offences against public justice, document-related offences) except on a complaint in writing by the concerned court or public servant. Private persons cannot directly file complaints for these offences.
Under the Patents Act, certain subject matters are not patentable including: inventions contrary to public order/morality, mere discoveries, scientific theories, mathematical methods, plants/animals (other than microorganisms), traditional knowledge, and atomic energy inventions.
WIPO replaced the pre-existing BIRPI (Bureaux Internationaux Réunis pour la Protection de la Propriété Intellectuelle) in 1970. WIPO became a UN specialized agency in 1974 and now administers 26 international IP treaties from its headquarters in Geneva.
The UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration provides a template but does NOT automatically become part of any country's law. Countries must adopt it through domestic legislation. India adopted it through the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Pick up Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and turn to Section 7(4)
Look up the referenced provision in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to verify the answer.
Section 7(4) of the ACA provides that an arbitration agreement is 'in writing' if it is contained in: (a) a signed document, (b) exchange of letters/communications providing a record, or (c) exchange of claim and defence statements where existence is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
Pick up Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and turn to Section 4
Look up the referenced provision in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to verify the answer.
Section 4 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with waiver of right to object. If a party knows of non-compliance with arbitration agreement provisions and proceeds without timely objection, that party waives the right to object later. Silence = deemed waiver.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 35A
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 35A CPC deals with compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences. The court can order the party making a false claim to pay compensatory costs up to Rs. 3,000 to the other side.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Check options
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 150 CPC deals with transfer of business in certain cases — substitution of courts when one court is replaced by another. This ensures that pending cases are smoothly transferred when court jurisdiction changes due to administrative reorganization.
PIL serves as a tool for social justice by providing access to courts for disadvantaged groups who cannot approach courts individually. It enforces diffused rights, holds the state accountable, and addresses systemic injustices affecting large populations.
This question describes a PIL filed by a professor who had done substantial research — testing who has standing to file PIL and on what matters. The SC has allowed academics, journalists, and social activists to file PILs on matters of public importance.
This quote describes the essence of PIL jurisdiction — where a legal wrong or injury is caused and the victim cannot approach courts due to poverty, disability, or social/economic disadvantage, any public-spirited citizen can file a petition on their behalf.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 326A
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is punishable under Section 326A IPC (introduced by Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013). The minimum punishment is 10 years imprisonment extendable to life, plus fine to cover medical expenses of the victim.
This IPC illustration describes an accident without criminal intent or negligence — A's hatchet head flies off during normal work and kills someone. Since A had no intention and wasn't negligent, it's a pure accident and A commits no offence. This illustrates the absence of mens rea.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 192, 196
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
A fabricating evidence to get Z convicted commits offence under Section 192 IPC (fabricating false evidence) and Section 196 IPC (using evidence known to be fabricated). These are offences against public justice designed to protect the integrity of the judicial system.
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 70
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act provides that where a person lawfully does anything for another, or delivers anything not intending to do so gratuitously, the other person is bound to pay compensation. This creates a quasi-contractual obligation even without a formal agreement.
Section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act defines 'agreement' as every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other. An agreement = offer + acceptance. A contract = agreement + enforceability by law.
Under Section 3(a) of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 (now LARR Act 2013), 'land' includes not just soil but also benefits arising out of land, things attached to earth, things permanently fastened to anything attached to earth, and standing timber/crops/grass.
Pick up Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and turn to Section 35
Look up the referenced provision in Land Acquisition Act, 1894 to verify the answer.
Section 35 of the Land Acquisition Act provides for temporary occupation of waste or arable land and the procedure when disputes arise about the right to compensation. The Collector can temporarily acquire land for public purposes with specific safeguards.
A 'zero coupon bond' under the Income Tax Act is a bond issued at a discount to face value and redeemed at face value on maturity, with no periodic interest payments. The entire return is the difference between issue price and redemption price.
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced GST provisions into the Constitution. It inserted Articles 246A (concurrent taxing power), 269A (IGST), 279A (GST Council), and amended Article 366 to define GST. This was the constitutional foundation for India's GST regime.
In Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), the SC legalized living wills (advance medical directives) and passive euthanasia. A five-judge Constitution Bench held that the right to die with dignity is part of the right to life under Article 21.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 310
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 310 of the Constitution establishes the 'doctrine of pleasure' — every person in a civil service of the Union or State holds office during the pleasure of the President or Governor respectively. This is subject to constitutional protections under Articles 311 and 312.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to UOI v. ADR (2002)
Look up the referenced provision in Constitutional Law to verify the answer.
The right to know antecedents of election candidates was recognized in Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms (2002). The SC held that voters have a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) to know the criminal record, assets, liabilities, and educational qualifications of candidates.
In the Preamble, 'liberty' refers to freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. It encompasses both negative liberty (freedom from interference) and positive liberty (freedom to participate in democratic governance).
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Sections 17, 19
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
A who intentionally misleads B about land ownership commits fraud under Section 17 of the Contract Act. If B buys land based on A's false representation, B can avoid the contract under Section 19 (voidable at the option of the defrauded party) and claim damages.
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 repealed three older statutes: the Arbitration Act, 1940; the Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937; and the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961. It consolidated all arbitration law into one comprehensive Act.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 121
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Section 121 IPC deals with waging or attempting to wage war against the Government of India. If A takes arms against the government, it constitutes the offence of waging war — one of the most serious offences punishable with death or life imprisonment.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 110
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the burden of proof as to ownership — when the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which they are shown to be in possession, the burden of proving they are not the owner is on the person who affirms they are not.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 113A
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 113A of the Evidence Act deals with presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman. If a married woman commits suicide within 7 years of marriage and her husband (or relatives) subjected her to cruelty, the court MAY presume abetment of suicide.
Vis Major (or Act of God) means an irresistible force of nature that cannot be prevented or controlled — floods, earthquakes, storms, lightning. It is a complete defence in tort law because no human negligence is involved. The event must be extraordinary, not merely unusual.
The classical doctrine of Act of State in tort law means the sovereign (state) cannot be sued for acts done in exercise of sovereign functions. In India, this doctrine is limited — the state IS liable for commercial/non-sovereign functions but immune for sovereign acts.
In tort law, all persons who aid, counsel, direct, or join in committing a tort are joint tortfeasors. Each joint tortfeasor is independently liable for the full extent of the damage — the plaintiff can recover the entire amount from any one of them (joint and several liability).
The principle of Res Judicata (matter already judged) is codified under Section 11 of CPC. It bars re-litigation of issues already decided between the same parties in a previous suit. This promotes finality, prevents contradictory judgments, and saves judicial time.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 14
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 14 CPC deals with presumption as to foreign judgments — a foreign judgment is conclusive on any matter directly adjudicated between the same parties, except in cases of lack of jurisdiction, fraud, breach of natural justice, or violation of Indian law.
A, residing in Delhi, publishes defamatory statements in Kolkata. Under CPC territorial jurisdiction rules, the suit can be filed either where the cause of action arose (Kolkata, where publication occurred) or where the defendant resides (Delhi). Both courts have jurisdiction.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission was constituted under the Consumer Protection Act. It handles complaints where the value of goods/services exceeds the State Commission's limit and hears appeals from State Commissions.
The limitation period for filing complaints before all three consumer forums is 2 years from the date the cause of action arose. This uniform period applies to District, State, and National Commissions alike under the Consumer Protection Act.
Pick up Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and turn to Section 6 (as amended 2005)
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Succession Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
After the 2005 Amendment to Hindu Succession Act, a daughter of a coparcener is treated as a coparcener by birth, with the same rights and liabilities as a son. She can demand partition, has a right to reside in the dwelling house, and her share devolves by survivorship.
Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act lays down the essential conditions for a valid Hindu marriage: no living spouse, mental fitness, minimum age (21 for groom, 18 for bride), not within prohibited degrees, and not sapindas of each other.
A marriage between a girl and her maternal uncle's son falls within the prohibited/sapinda relationships under HMA unless custom or usage governing both parties permits it. Many communities in South India customarily allow such marriages, making them valid if both parties follow that custom.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 82
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Section 82 IPC provides absolute immunity for children under 7 — nothing done by a child below seven years is an offence, regardless of intent or consequences. This is based on the 'doli incapax' presumption that very young children lack the capacity for criminal intent.
R. v. Dudley & Stephens (1884) established that necessity is NOT a defence to murder. Two shipwrecked sailors killed and ate a cabin boy to survive. The court held that preserving one's own life is no justification for taking an innocent life.
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 42
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
When X, Y, Z jointly promise to pay Rs. 50,000 and one dies, the survivors and the deceased's legal representatives are jointly bound. Under Section 42 of the Indian Contract Act, when joint promisors die, survivors and the representative of deceased must perform jointly.
Delivery of goods by one person to another for a specific purpose, upon a contract that they shall be returned when the purpose is accomplished, is the definition of bailment under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act.
Section 14A, inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, deals with special courts for adjudicating specific performance cases. It mandates infrastructure contracts and similar cases to be disposed of within 12 months.
In Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha (1980), Justice Krishna Iyer observed that mere illegality of a strike doesn't automatically make it unjustifiable. The court distinguished between legality and justifiability — a strike may be technically illegal but still justified on merits.
A workman aggrieved by an order can directly approach the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal depending on the nature of the dispute. The specific authority and procedural route depends on whether it's an individual dispute or an industrial dispute under the ID Act.
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987) — the Shriram Food and Fertilisers case — arose from an oleum gas leak in Delhi. The SC evolved the doctrine of 'Absolute Liability' (no exceptions, unlike strict liability in Rylands v. Fletcher) for hazardous industries.
A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970) held that principles of natural justice apply not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions but also to administrative functions. It recognized that the distinction between these categories is thin and artificial.
Judicial control of delegated legislation can be exercised on grounds of: (1) ultra vires the parent Act, (2) ultra vires the Constitution, (3) unreasonableness, (4) violation of natural justice, and (5) mala fide exercise of power. All these grounds together form judicial review of subordinate legislation.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 83-87
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 83 CPC deals with suits by or against the Government of India or foreign rulers. It prescribes special procedures including consent requirements and notice provisions for filing suits against foreign sovereigns or their representatives.
An order issued by a court under CPC, as per Section 2(14), is a formal expression of any decision of a civil court which is not a decree. Orders are typically interlocutory or procedural in nature, while decrees are final adjudications on rights.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 88 / Order XXXII
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 88 read with Order XXXII CPC deals with suits by or on behalf of minor plaintiffs through a next friend, and suits against minors through a guardian ad litem. This protects minors' interests in litigation by ensuring competent adult representation.
The offence of sedition under Section 124A IPC was famously in issue in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962), where the SC upheld its constitutionality but limited it to acts involving incitement to violence or tendency to create public disorder.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 295A
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Section 295A IPC deals with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting their religion or religious beliefs. The punishment is imprisonment up to 3 years, or fine, or both.
In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020), the SC addressed internet shutdowns in J&K post Article 370 abrogation. It held that freedom of speech via internet is protected under Article 19(1)(a), and any restrictions must be proportionate, temporary, and subject to judicial review.
Section 66A of the IT Act was struck down in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) as unconstitutional for violating Article 19(1)(a). The section's vague terms ('annoying,' 'inconvenient') were held to be overbroad and capable of suppressing legitimate speech.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 145(3)
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 145(3) requires minimum 5 judges to hear cases involving substantial questions of constitutional interpretation or references under Article 143. Regular cases need only 2-3 judges.
Pick up Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and turn to Sections 6-11
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
Valid adoption under HAMA requires: (1) the person adopting has the capacity and right to adopt, (2) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so, (3) the person being adopted is capable of being adopted, and (4) the adoption complies with Section 11 conditions.
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 declares talaq-e-biddat (instant triple talaq) void and illegal. It makes pronouncement of triple talaq a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years. The wife is entitled to maintenance and custody.
Suits by indigent persons (pauper suits) are dealt with under Order XXXIII CPC. An indigent person who cannot afford court fees can apply to sue without paying fees, subject to the court being satisfied about their inability to pay.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 6
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Res Gestae — relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction — is codified under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act. Contemporaneous statements and acts during a transaction are admissible even though they constitute hearsay.
Article 1 of the Constitution declares: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' This establishes that India is not a federation formed by agreement of states but a union where states have no right to secede.
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1987) — the Shriram Fertilisers case — established the doctrine of Absolute Liability for hazardous industries. Unlike Rylands v. Fletcher strict liability (which has exceptions), absolute liability has no exceptions whatsoever.
This is an Evidence Act question testing relevancy of facts. When asking whether A owes B Rs. 10,000, the relevant facts include: the original transaction, any payments made, admissions by A, entries in account books, and evidence of A's financial dealings with B.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 27
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that so much of information received from a person in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact discovered can be proved. This is the exception to Sections 25 and 26 (confession to police inadmissible).
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 45
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with expert opinion — when the court needs to form an opinion on foreign law, science, art, or handwriting/finger impressions, expert opinions are relevant facts.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 323A
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 323A empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals for adjudication of service disputes of government employees. The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 was enacted under this provision, creating the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 49(1)(c)
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act empowers BCI to lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette. These rules define the duties of advocates towards courts, clients, opposing counsel, and the profession.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 49
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Section 49 of the Advocates Act gives BCI general rule-making power. Under this provision, BCI can make rules regarding: professional conduct, legal education standards, right to practise, disciplinary procedures, and other matters related to the legal profession.
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 124
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
An indemnity contract is defined under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act as a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused by the conduct of the promisor or any third person.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 167
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 167 CrPC deals with the procedure when investigation cannot be completed within 24 hours. It provides for remand of the accused to judicial or police custody, with specific time limits (15 days police custody, 60/90 days judicial custody).
Attachment of property of an absconding person is provided under Section 83 CrPC. When a proclaimed offender (under S.82) fails to appear, the court can order attachment of their property. If the person still doesn't appear, the property may be sold.
Section 205 CrPC empowers the Magistrate to dispense with personal attendance of the accused and allow appearance through a pleader. This applies where the offence is not punishable with imprisonment exceeding 3 years, and the Magistrate considers personal attendance unnecessary.
The definition of 'money' under GST law includes currency, cheques, promissory notes, bills of exchange, letters of credit, drafts, and digital payment instruments. However, it does NOT include certain items — the question tests which specific exclusion applies.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 279A
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 279A provides for the constitution of the GST Council. It is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, with the Union Minister of State for Finance and all State Finance Ministers as members. Decisions require 3/4th majority with Centre having 1/3rd weightage and states 2/3rd.
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 2(h)
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
The definition of 'contract' is given under Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act: 'An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.' This simple definition combines two elements: agreement (offer + acceptance) and legal enforceability.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Sections 265A-265L
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Sections 265A to 265L (Chapter XXIA) of CrPC deal with plea bargaining — a mechanism allowing the accused to plead guilty in exchange for lesser punishment. This was introduced by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 to reduce case pendency.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 110
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 110 CrPC deals with security for good behaviour from habitual offenders. The Magistrate can require habitual offenders, persons taking part in unlawful assemblies, or persons disseminating seditious matter to execute a bond for good behaviour.
Section 4 IPC extends the Code's application to: (a) Indian citizens anywhere in the world, (b) persons on Indian-registered ships/aircraft, and (c) persons targeting Indian computer resources from outside India. All three together give the IPC extra-territorial reach.
Section 105(H) CrPC (now omitted) dealt with provisions related to community service as a condition or part of sentencing. The specific provision addressed in the question should be verified from the CrPC text.
Under Section 2(3) CPC, 'decree-holder' means any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made. This is the person who can initiate execution proceedings to enforce the court's decision.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 7
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
The Bar Council of India's functions include: laying down professional conduct standards, safeguarding advocate rights, promoting legal education, recognizing law universities, conducting AIBE, and managing the common fund for welfare of advocates.
Justice Abbot Parry identified the 'Seven Lamps of Advocacy': honesty, courage, industry, wit, eloquence, judgment, and fellowship. These represent the ideal qualities every advocate should cultivate for effective and ethical legal practice.
Section 149(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 requires a minimum of 3 directors for a public company, 2 for a private company, and 1 for a One Person Company. The maximum is 15 for all types, extendable by special resolution.
Under Section 2(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, an 'associate company' means a company in which another company has significant influence (but not a subsidiary). Significant influence means control of at least 20% of total voting power or business decisions.
Section 66A of the IT Act was held unconstitutional in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015). The SC struck it down for violating freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) — its vague terms could criminalize innocent online expression.
A teacher is NOT a workman under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The definition of 'workman' under Section 2(s) excludes persons employed mainly in managerial/administrative/supervisory capacity and persons employed in teaching institutions (as per various SC decisions).
The Factories Act provisions cover: working hours, annual leave, health and safety, welfare measures (canteens, rest rooms), employment of young persons, and penalties for violations. The specific provision tested depends on the options given.