AIBE Prep › Previous Papers › AIBE IX — March 2016

AIBE IX — March 2016 — Complete Questions with Answers

99 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 March 2016
1. The conciliation proceedings:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings.
B can be used as evidence only in arbitral proceedings.
C can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator.
✓ cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 81 of the Arbitration Act bars use of conciliation proceedings as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings. This confidentiality protection encourages parties to participate freely in conciliation without fear of their statements being used against them.

2. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Takes up cases suo mota
B Takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concerned
C Takes up cases for investigations referred to it by Central Government
✓ All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

SFIO (Serious Fraud Investigation Office) investigates corporate frauds only when directed by the Central Government — not suo motu. It was established under Section 211 of the Companies Act, 2013.

3. Directive Principles are:
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A justifiable as fundamental rights
B justifiable but not as fundamental rights
C decorative portions of Indian Constitution
✓ not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, directive principles (Part IV, Articles 36-51) guide state policy but are non-justiciable. They complement fundamental rights and aim at establishing social and economic justice.

4. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ President
B Prime Minister
C Speaker of Lok Sabha
D Council of Ministers
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, consideration must be real though need not be adequate. Past consideration is valid in Indian law (unlike English law). Consideration can move from the promisee or any other person.

5. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of Bill for such purpose in:
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A Council of States
B House of People
✓ either in Council of States or House of people
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'ostensible owner' (S.41) is a person who appears to be the owner with the true owner's consent. Transfers by ostensible owners to bona fide transferees for consideration are protected.

6. Which of the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A To carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of pollution and prevention, control or abatement of pollution.
B To improve the quality of air
✓ Both (A) and (B)
D neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CPC, Order XIV deals with settlement of issues and determines the points of dispute between parties. Issues can be of fact, of law, or mixed questions of fact and law.

7. The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by:
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
B The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
✓ Indian Fisheries Act, 1897
D The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, the burden of proof in civil cases lies on the party who would fail if no evidence were given (S.101). The plaintiff generally bears the initial burden, which may shift based on presumptions.

8. Section 10 of CPC does not apply-
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A when the previous suit is pending in the same court
✓ when the previous suit is pending in a foreign court
C when the previous suit is pending in any other court of India
D when the previous suit is pending in a court outside India established by the Central Government
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, void marriages (S.11) — violating conditions of bigamy, prohibited relationship, or sapinda relationship — are null from inception. Voidable marriages (S.12) are valid until annulled.

9. Principle of Res judicata is:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Mandatory
B Directory
C Discretionary
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, 'khula' is divorce at the wife's instance where she returns her mahr (dower) to the husband in exchange for release from the marriage. The husband's consent may or may not be required depending on the school.

10. International law is a weak law because:
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A It is not enforceable as such, it is not a law but a positive morality
✓ There is absence of compulsory dispute settlement mechanisms and independent system of sanctions
C It only includes States as subjects
D There is no dependable sources available
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under IPC, 'kidnapping' has two forms: kidnapping from India (S.360 — taking a person outside India without consent) and kidnapping from lawful guardianship (S.361 — taking a minor or unsound person away from lawful guardian).

11. Which of the following territories have been declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Territories? (1) Moon (2) High Seas (3) Deep sea bed (4) Antarctica
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A 1, 2 and 4
B 1 and 3
✓ 2, 3 and 4
D 2 and 4
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, the Magistrate's power to order investigation (S.156(3)) is an important remedy when police refuse to register FIR or investigate properly. The Magistrate can direct the SHO to investigate.

12. Which of the following is not the objective of the United Nations
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A Maintenance of International peace and security
B Ensuring respect for treaty obligations
✓ Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world
D Promotion of better standards of life
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic records have the same legal validity as paper records (S.4). Digital signatures authenticate electronic records (S.3). This forms the legal backbone of e-commerce and e-governance.

13. The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Justice Dalveer Bhandari
B Justice Altamas Kabeer
✓ Justice J.S. Verma
D Justice J.S. Anand
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the Central Government can take measures to protect the environment — setting quality standards, restricting industrial locations, and prescribing safeguards for hazardous substances.

14. If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchange, it is
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A a valid instrument
✓ an ambiguous instrument
C a returnable instrument
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, 'one person company' (OPC) was introduced allowing a single person to form a company. This promotes entrepreneurship while providing limited liability protection to sole operators.

15. How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility?
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A The networth will be calculated as per section 198 of Companies Act, 2013
B It shall be calculated as per section 197 of the Companies Act 2013
C It shall be calculated as per section 197 and section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013
✓ It shall be calculated as per section 198 and section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 226 gives High Courts wider writ jurisdiction than the Supreme Court's Article 32 — HCs can issue writs for fundamental rights AND for any other purpose, while SC writs are only for fundamental rights.

16. According to one of the theories of punishment evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Reformative Theory
B Deterrent Theory
C Preventive Theory
✓ Retributive Theory
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, every advocate is an officer of the court with duties to: maintain court dignity, not mislead the court, keep client confidences, not accept conflicting briefs, and charge reasonable fees.

17. Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under section 4(5) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A He can direct the Company to change it’s name within a period of 6 months after passing an ordinary resolution
✓ Take action for striking off the name of the Company from the register of Companies
C Order winding up of the Company on his own accord
D All of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is mandatory for all motor vehicles. Section 140 provides no-fault liability ensuring minimum compensation for accident victims regardless of driver's fault.

18. Which of the following are included in the concept of “State” under Article 12?
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A Railway Board and Electricity Board
B Judiciary
C University
✓ All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, health and safety provisions protect workers from hazardous conditions. Fencing of machinery, prevention of dust/fumes, adequate lighting, ventilation, and drinking water are mandatory requirements.

19. The word “procedure established by law” in Article 21 means
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A that due process of law must be followed
✓ A procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority
C The same thing as due process of law
D A law which is reasonable, just and fair.
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'lay-off' (S.2(kkk)) is temporary inability of the employer to provide employment due to shortage of materials, power failure, machinery breakdown, or natural calamity. Workers get lay-off compensation.

20. Objection as to non-joinder or mis- joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A can be taken at any stage of the proceedings
✓ should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid
C can be taken in appeal or revision for the first time
D either (A) or (C)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the Collector plays the central role in acquisition proceedings — issuing notices, conducting hearings, making awards, and disbursing compensation to affected landowners.

21. Objection as to the place of suing
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ can only be taken before the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity
B can also be taken before the appellate court for the first time
C can also be taken before the court of revision for the first time
D all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

22. On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order, XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ stayed
B dismissed
C rejected
D either (A), (B) or (C)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

23. In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ CERT-IND
B MCITPC
C C-DAC
D Ministry of IT
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

24. The right to private defence is-
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A available under all circumstances
B available when there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities
✓ available when there is no time to have recourse of public authorities
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

25. Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
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A Termination due to ill-health
B Abandonment of job by an employee
C Termination on account of reaching the age of superannuation
✓ None of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

26. Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provisions of section 14(3) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A It may extend to one year.
B It may extend to two years.
C It may extend to six months
✓ It may extend to one month
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

27. Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the Society of the other is on-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Petitioner
✓ Respondent
C Both (A) and (B)
D Either (A) or (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

28. Which of the following statements hold true for adjudicatory bodies
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Doctrine of Stare Decisis applies to them
B Doctrine of Res judicata does not apply to them
✓ Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the parties
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

29. The Supreme Court held in V.C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan that an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction
B He has lived a consistent life of poverty and integrity
✓ He possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings
D The burden is on the applicant to establish that he is entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

30. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Constitution of India
B Supreme Court of India guidelines
C European Commercial Arbitration Procedure
✓ UNCITRAL
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

31. Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus:
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ SEBI
B Central Government
C Company Law Board
D National Company Law Tribunal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

32. Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Rams
B Kids
✓ Kitten
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

33. The provisions of the Arbitration and conciliation Act, 1996 have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by the principles underlying the 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlise Industries (India) Ltd.
✓ Sunderam Finance Ltd. v. N.E.P .C. Ltd.
C Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meera Vijay
D Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissari Pvt. Ltd.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

34. Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Company by an auditor appointed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Internal Audit
B Actuarial Services
C Managerial Services
✓ All of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

35. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, any person’ who teases an animal in a zoo may be punished
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A with fine with may extend to 5000
B with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 year
C both (A) and (B)
✓ Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

36. The entry on forests and protection of Wild animals and birds was moved from to the by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Centre list to State list
B Centre list to Concurrent list
✓ State list to Concurrent list
D State list to Union list
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

37. Droit des Gens (Law of Nations) 1758 was written by-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Cornelius van Bynkershoek
✓ Emerich de Vattel
C Richard Zouch
D Jean Bodin
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

38. What is true of perpetual injunction
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A It is a judicial process
B preventive in nature
C the thing prevented is a wrongful act
✓ all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

39. The provisions of _____ do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
B The Companies Act, 1956
✓ Both (A) and (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

40. According to Salmond every legal right:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Cannot be vested in a person
✓ Is availed against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty
C Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in favour of the person entitled
D Cannot have a title
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

41. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Public opinion
✓ Abrogated decision
C Res judicata
D Lis pendens
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

42. Which of the following is true in respect of a Government contract which does not confirm to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ They are not enforceable in court against the parties
B They can be rectified by the Government
C Both (A) and (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

43. State Bar Council under the provisions of section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to-
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Reprimand the advocate
B Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit
C Remove the name of the advocate from the state roll of advocates
✓ All of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

44. Which of the following is untrue regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the state rolls maintained by State Bar Councils
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ The minimum age required is 21 years.
B He must be an Indian Citizen
C He must not have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
D They must not have been convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1958
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

45. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Minority
B Insanity
C Idiocy
✓ None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

46. To establish section 34, IPC
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Common Intention must be proved but not overt act is required to be proved.
✓ Common Intention and overt act both are required to be proved
C Common intention need not be proved but only overt act is required to be proved.
D All of the above.
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

47. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the appropriate government can by order in writing
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A refer the dispute to a Board for promoting a settlement of the dispute
B refer any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to a court for inquiry
✓ both (A) and (B)
D neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

48. Which of the following statement is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Even ‘when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful, the court may not yet order reinstatement if the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position of trust and there was loss of confidence.
B Loss of confidence may also be a ground for discharge simpliciter of the workman
✓ both (A) and (B)
D neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

49. Under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation for filing complaint before the National Commission is
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A 1 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
✓ 2 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
C 3 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
D 4 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

50. Grievous hurt under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 means
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Grievous hurt as defined in IPC
B Grievous hurt as defined in medical I laws
C Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitioner
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

51. A retracted confession
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A can be solely made the basis of conviction
B cannot be solely made the basis of conviction
✓ cannot be solely made the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
D both (A) and (C) are correct
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

52. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of the Evidence Act:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A must relate to the same crime for which offender is charged
B may relate to the same crime for which offender is charged
C must relate to another crime
✓ none of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

53. An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Unreliable
B Inadmissible
C Inadmissible and unreliable
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

54. Recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with under section 200 of Cr.P.C
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A If the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainant
B If the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties
✓ both (A) and (B) are correct
D only (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

55. Contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A void
B reasonable
✓ valid
D unenforceable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

56. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A the salary of a public officer can be transferred
✓ the salary of a public officer cannot be transferred
C public office can be transferred
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

57. Where a debt is transferred for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt: the debt so transferred, if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee is applicable first, in payment of cost of such recovery. This is the provision of:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ mortgaged debt
B gift
C actionable claim
D lease
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

58. A suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be brought by:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A trespasser
✓ a tenant holding over
C servant
D manager
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

59. Injunction cannot be granted in a suit:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ in which the specific performance cannot enforced
B for breach of negative contract to enforce specific contract
C for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession
D neither (A), nor (B), nor (C)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

60. State practice for the formation of customary rule includes: (1) State actions (2) State claims
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A only (1)
B only (2)
✓ both (1) and (2)
D neither (1) nor (2)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

61. The Controller of Certifying Authorities in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records of: (1) Certifying Authority (2) Cross Certifying Authority (3) Foreign Certifying Authority
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A (1) and (2)
B (2) and (3)
C (3) and (1)
✓ (1), (2) and (3)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

62. Under section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, the certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certificate, if: (1) The subscriber is found guilty of malpractice (2) The subscriber is involved in cyber terrorism (3) The subscriber requests for the same (4) In public interest
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A (1) and (2)
B (2) and (3)
✓ (3) and (4)
D (4) and (1)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

63. In the cases before Cyber Appellate Tribunal, the appellant:
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Cannot appear in person without a legal practitioner
B Cannot authorise a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf
C Cannot authorise his officer to appear on his behalf
✓ Cannot authorize his relative who is neither his officer nor a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

65. The offence of stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Non-cognizable and Bailable
B Cognizable and Bailable
✓ Cognizable and Non-bailable
D Non-cognizable and Non-bailable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

66. In kidnapping, the consent of minor is
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ wholly immaterial
B partly immaterial
C wholly material
D partly material
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

67. Under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, any person who has attained the age of may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union to the contrary.
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A 14 years
✓ 15 years
C 18 years
D 21 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

68. Spurious goods under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 imply
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Such goods and services which are of poor quality
✓ Such goods and services which are claimed to be genuine but they are actually not so
C Such goods and services which might be stolen in nature
D Such goods and services which are not usable in nature
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

69. Who is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Owner of the vehicle
B State Government
C Driver
D Insurance Company
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

70. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Proceedings before tribunals
B Proceedings before the arbitrator
✓ Judicial proceedings in court
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

71. Fact in issue means
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Fact, existence or non existence of which is admitted by the parties
✓ Fact, existence or non existence of which is disputed by the parties
C Fact, existence or non existence of which is not disputed by the parties
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

72. In a bailable offence bail is granted as a matter of right:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A By the police officer
B By the court
C Both by the police officer and the court
✓ either (A) or (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

73. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A within 6 months of attachment
✓ within 2 years of attachment
C within 3 years of attachment
D within 1 year of attachment
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

74. The question whether a statement was recorded in the course of investigation is a:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A question of law
✓ question of fact
C mixed question of law and fact
D question of law or fact depends on facts and circumstances
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

75. Where the police submits a final report under section 173(2) of Cr.P.c. for dropping of proceedings to a Magistrate, the Magistrate
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A may accept the same
B may reject the same
C may reject the same and order further investigation
✓ any of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

76. The orders under section 125 of Cr.P.C. are
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A summary in nature but finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties
✓ summary in nature and do not finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties which are to be finally determined by a civil court
C Substantive in nature and finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties
D Substantive in nature and are not subject to determination of a right of the parties by a civil court
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

77. A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain events not happening within a fixed time under section 35-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time
B becomes void at the expiration of the time fixed
C becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time fixed
✓ both (B) and (C)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

78. In cases of general offer, for a valid contract-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A the acceptor need not have the knowledge of the offer
✓ the acceptor must have the knowledge of the offer before acceptance by performance
C the acceptor may acquire the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition for acceptance
D knowledge does not matter so long as the condition is performed with or without knowledge
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

79. Under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ upon his birth
B 7 days after his birth
C 12 days after his birth
D no such provision is made
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

80. Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ at the option of creditor so defeated or delayed
B at the option of debtor
C at the option of court
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

81. Where co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each is-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A not jointly and severally liable to the decree holder
✓ jointly and severally liable to the decree holder
C jointly lable to the decree holder only
D severally liable to the decree holder only
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

82. At sight under section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 means-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A on presentation
✓ on demand
C on coming into vision
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

83. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Suits
B Execution
C Election petitions
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

84. Which of the following Companies will have to constitute Corporate Social Responsibility Committee under the Companies Act, 2013
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A A Company having a net profit of 2.5 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 800 crores
B A Company having a net profit of 3 crores, in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 600 crores
✓ A Company having a net profit of 5 crores or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 1000 crores or more
D A Company having a net profit of 5 crores or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 5000 crores or more
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

85. A disqualified person/heir-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Transmits an interest to his or her own heir
✓ Transmits no interest to his or her own heir
C May or may not transmits an interest to his or her own heir as per the discretion of the court
D May only transmits an interest to his or her own heir with the consent of the other heirs.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

86. In cases in which a specific act confers a discretionary power on an authority:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A The court can direct the manner in which the power is exercised
✓ The court can direct that the power be exercised in accordance with law
C Both (A) and (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

87. The Bar Council of India Rule which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates was struck down by the Supreme Court in:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A E.S. Reddi v. Bar Council of India
✓ Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advise v. Bar Council of India
C P. Shanmugam v. Bar Council of India
D Legal Committee v. Bar Council of India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

88. Which is an incorrect statement?
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ An Arbitral award is a contract
B An Arbitral award must be in writing and signed
C An Arbitral award included an interim award.
D None of the above.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

89. Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of sections 14 and 15 of the Act?
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ Central Government
B State Government
C Certifying authority
D Issuing authority
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

90. The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are: (1) When one owes a duty of care towards the other. (2) When one commits a breach of that duty; and (3) The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof Choose correct response from below:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A None of them are essential ingredients.
B Only the first is an essential ingredient.
✓ All of them are essential ingredients
D Even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

91. Vicarious liability includes:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
B Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
C Liability of the partners for each others tort
✓ All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

92. Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statement:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence
B is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses
C is a person who cannot be found
✓ all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

93. Secondary evidence of a document means:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Copies of the document
B oral account of the contents of the documents
✓ both (A) and (B)
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

94. A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ when it is registered
B when it is unregistered
C when it is admitted
D all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

95. Any person in section 106 of Evidence Act, 1872 refers to-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
✓ a party to the suit
B a stranger to the suit
C a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit
D all of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

96. In a cognizable case under IPC, police have the-
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A Authority to arrest a person without warrant
B Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate
✓ Both (A) or (B)
D Either (A) nor (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This landmark case established an important legal principle. Case law holdings must be memorized for AIBE as they are not found in bare act text.

97. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A any police officer
B by the investigating officer
✓ both (A) and (B)
D Either (A) or (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

98. Commital proceedings under section 209 of Cr.P.C. are in the nature of-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A aid in investigation
✓ inquiry
C trial
D either inquiry or trial
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

This tests knowledge of a specific statutory provision. Check the referenced section in the relevant Act to verify the correct answer among the options.

99. Which is correct?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A proposal + acceptance = promise
B promise + consideration = agreement
C agreement + enforceability = contract
✓ all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests understanding of a core legal concept. The correct answer requires knowledge of the relevant legal provision and its practical application in the described context.

100. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study → ▼
A when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
✓ when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
C when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
D all of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, communication of acceptance is complete against the proposer when it is put in course of transmission so as to be out of the acceptor's power — this is the 'postal rule' in Indian contract law.