AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE VI — January 2014

AIBE VI — January 2014 — Complete Questions with Answers

99 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 January 2014
1. The provision under CPC that relates to suit by indigent persons-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Order 32
B Order 34
C Order 35
Order 33
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Order XXXIII CPC deals with suits by indigent persons (pauper suits). An indigent person who cannot afford court fees can apply to sue without payment, subject to the court being satisfied about their financial inability.

2. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 enables the court to condone delay in filing ........ on sufficient satisfaction of sufficient cause.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
appeal or application
B appeal, suit and application
C appeal, petition and counter-petition
D appeal, petition, suit and counter-petition
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 5 of the Limitation Act allows condonation of delay only in filing appeals or applications — NOT suits. The applicant must show 'sufficient cause' for the delay. This is a crucial distinction frequently tested.

3. Limitation period prescribed in filing a suit by a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property mortgaged
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 20 years
B 12 years
C 10 years
30 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Limitation periods for filing suits vary by type of claim. The specific period depends on the nature of the suit as prescribed in the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963. Common periods: money recovery (3 years), immovable property (12 years).

4. Which are the provisions under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that deals with relevancy of opinion of experts?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Sections 49 & 50
B Sections 23 & 24
Sections 45 & 46
D Sections 81 & 82
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CPC, Order VII Rule 11 lists grounds for rejection of plaint: no cause of action, undervalued and not corrected, barred by limitation, not stamped properly, or filed in duplicate. Rejection is on face of plaint — no evidence needed.

5. Who decides as to which of the several modes he/she will execute the decree:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Plaintiff
B Court
C Judgment-debtor
Decree-holder
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 96 CPC provides for appeal from original decrees. A first appeal lies to the appellate court from every decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction, unless specifically barred by law.

6. Where a party to a suit requires information as to facts from the opposite party, he may administer to his adversary a series of questions. It is called as-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Question Petition
B Question pamphlet
Interrogatories
D Discovery
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance (S.10) is an equitable remedy granted when monetary compensation is inadequate. The court exercises discretion — considering fairness of contract, hardship, and plaintiff's conduct.

7. .........is a suit filed by or against one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having the same interest in the suit.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Joint suit
Representative suit
C Collusive suit
D Collective suit.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, acceptance must be communicated to be effective. Silence does not constitute acceptance. The acceptance must be absolute and unqualified — a conditional acceptance is a counter-offer.

8. A person appointed by the court to protect, preserve and manage the property’ during the pendency of the litigation:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Amicus curiae
B Preserver
C Protector
Receiver
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, implied conditions protect buyers: seller's right to sell (S.14), correspondence with description (S.15), merchantable quality and fitness (S.16), and correspondence with sample (S.17).

9. Obstructing Public Servant in discharge of his public functions is a
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A non-bailable offence
bailable offence
C civil wrong
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, the doctrine of election (S.35) provides that a person who accepts a benefit under an instrument must also accept all its burdens. You cannot selectively accept advantages while rejecting obligations.

10. Compensation to victims of Crime under Criminal Law relates to
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 336
B Section 331
C Section 335
Section 357
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, Section 138 makes dishonour of cheque for insufficient funds a criminal offence. Requirements: cheque for legally enforceable debt, dishonoured, demand notice issued, 15-day payment failure.

11. What persons may be charged jointly and tried together under section 223 of Cr.P.C.
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction
B person accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of or attempt to commit such offence
C persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction
all the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental rights (Part III, Articles 12-35) are enforceable against the state through writs under Articles 32 (SC) and 226 (HC). They protect individual liberty from state action.

12. The principal regulator envisaged under the Trade Unions Act, 1926-
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Regulator of trade unions
B Inspector of trade unions
Registrar of trade unions
D Industrial relations committee
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Article 21, the right to life has been expansively interpreted to include: livelihood, shelter, health, education, privacy, dignity, speedy trial, legal aid, clean environment, and right to die with dignity.

13. A teacher is not a workman falling under the category of Workman under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. This was upheld in which case
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Miss A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman and Diu
B Ahmedabad Pvt. Primary Teachers Association v. Administrative Officer
University of Delhi v. Ramnath
D Secretary, Madras Gymkhana Club Employees’ Union v. Management of the Gymkhana.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Article 19(1), six freedoms are guaranteed to citizens: speech and expression, peaceful assembly, association/union, movement, residence, and profession/trade. Each has specific reasonable restriction grounds.

14. A contract made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust cannot be specifically enforced as per-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 12, Specific Relief Act, 1963
Section 11 (2), Specific Relief Act, 1963
C Section 12(2), Specific Relief Act, 1963
D Section 13, Specific Relief Act, 1963
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, directive principles (Part IV) guide state policy toward social and economic justice. Though non-justiciable, they are 'fundamental in the governance' and complement fundamental rights.

15. Under section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 an injunction cannot be granted-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A to restrain in any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a court not subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
B to restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
C to restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a criminal matter
all of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the IPC, the distinction between murder (S.300) and culpable homicide not amounting to murder (S.299) depends on the degree of intention and probability of causing death. S.300 requires higher mens rea.

16. Specific Relief can be granted only for the purpose of enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a penal law. Which provision brings in such prohibition?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 4, Specific Relief Act, 1963
B Section 5, Specific Relief Act, 1963
C Section 7, Specific Relief Act, 1963
D Section 10, Specific Relief Act, 1963
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, the right of private defence (S.96-106) allows reasonable force to protect person or property. It extends to causing death in extreme situations listed in Sections 100 (body) and 103 (property).

17. It was held by the Supreme Court of India that Preamble was not a part of the Constitution in the case of _____and this has been overruled in the case of _____
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
In re Berubari Union; Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib; Som Prakash v. Union of India
D l.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab; Shankar Prasad v. Union of India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, criminal conspiracy (S.120A) is the mere agreement between two or more persons to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means. The agreement itself completes the offence — no overt act needed.

18. Justice Ramanandan Committee relates to-
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A Union-State relations
Creamy layer
C Finance Commission
D Elections
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CrPC, the FIR (S.154) sets criminal law machinery in motion. The SHO must register it for cognizable offences. Delay in filing doesn't invalidate the FIR but must be satisfactorily explained.

19. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is dealt under-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 226
B Article 130
Article 131
D Article 124
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, bail provisions: bailable offences = bail as right (S.436), non-bailable = court's discretion (S.437), anticipatory bail = pre-arrest protection (S.438). The nature of the offence determines bail rights.

20. Laws declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts mentioned under:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 142
B Article 143
C Article 136
Article 141
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CrPC, the Magistrate takes cognizance under S.190 upon: (a) complaint, (b) police report, or (c) own knowledge/information. Cognizance is the formal application of judicial mind to suspected offence.

21. According to the theory of ‘social utilitarianism’ as propounded by Ihering-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure
B the essential body of legal rules is always based upon the social “facts” of law
C a balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society
law is a means to social ends
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, confessions to police officers are barred (S.25), confessions in police custody are barred unless before a Magistrate (S.26), but information leading to discovery of facts is admissible (S.27).

22. Equal pay for Equal work-can be enforced through=-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 39
Articles 14 and 16
C Article 311
D Article 309
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, dying declarations (S.32(1)) are exceptions to hearsay. The statement must relate to cause of death or circumstances of the transaction resulting in death. No expectation of death is required.

23. The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws - mentioned under:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 352
Article 256
C Article 254
D Article 301
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, burden of proof lies on the party who asserts (S.101). Presumptions can shift the burden. 'May presume' = discretionary; 'shall presume' = mandatory but rebuttable; 'conclusive' = irrebuttable.

24. Mubara’at under Muslim law refers to
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Divorce at the instance of wife
B Cruelty
C Ila
Dissolution of marriage with mutual consent
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, conditions for valid marriage (S.5) include: no living spouse, mental fitness, minimum age (21/18), not within prohibited degrees, and not sapindas — unless custom permits.

25. The discriminatory aspects of section 10 of Indian Divorce Act (now Divorce Act) was removed by substituting new section by the
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Indian Divorce (Amendment) Act of 2001
B Divorce (Amendment) Act of 2002
C Indian Divorce (Amendment) Act of 2006
D Indian Divorce (Amendment) Act of 2012
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, mahr (dower) is the wife's right — a sum promised by husband at marriage. Prompt mahr is payable immediately; deferred mahr becomes due on divorce or husband's death.

26. Amalgamation of Companies in National Interest is dealt under-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 388 of the Companies Act, 1956
B Section 378 of the Companies Act, 1956
Section 396 of the Companies Act, 1956
D Section 390 of the Companies Act, 1956
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Hindu Succession Act, coparcenary property devolves by survivorship under Mitakshara law. After the 2005 amendment, daughters have equal coparcenary rights as sons — they can demand partition.

27. Under section 171 of the Companies Act, 1956 a general meeting of a company may be called by giving a notice in writing for not less than-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
21 days
B 30 days
C 40 days
D 14 days
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Advocates Act, professional misconduct is dealt with by State Bar Council disciplinary committees (S.35). Punishments: reprimand, suspension, or removal from state roll. Appeal lies to BCI (S.37) then SC (S.38).

28. A private limited company limits the number of members to
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 30
50
C 40
D 150
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, three-tier redressal: District Commission (up to Rs. 1 crore), State Commission (Rs. 1-10 crore), National Commission (above Rs. 10 crore). Complaints must be filed within 2 years.

29. Consumer Protection Act was brought into operation in the year
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1987
1986
C 1985
D 1984
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is mandatory (S.146). No-fault liability (S.140) ensures basic compensation for death/permanent disability regardless of fault — protecting all accident victims.

30. Under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 the jurisdiction of the District Forum should not exceed rupees
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Fifty Thousands
B One Lakh
C Twenty-Five Thousands
Twenty Lakhs
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under tort law, vicarious liability means one person is liable for another's tort. The most common form: employer liable for employee's torts committed during course of employment (respondeat superior).

31. The Second principle of Rule of Law (of A.V . Dicey) relates to
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Equal protection of the laws
Equality before law
C Dignity of the individual
D Administrative Courts
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, health, safety, and welfare of factory workers are regulated. Working hours: max 48/week, 9/day. Overtime at double rates. Canteen required for 250+ workers, welfare officer for 500+.

32. A seven-member Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously struck down clause 2(d) of Article 323A and clause 3(d) of Article 323B of the Constitution relating to Tribunals which excluded the jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court. The court held that power of judicial review over legislative action is vested in the High Court under Article 226 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32. This is an integral part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Name the case-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
L. Chandra Kumar u. Union of India
B Kihota Hollohon u. Zachilhu
C Nagaraj u. State of Andhra Pradesh
D Rajendra Singh Rana u. Swami Prasad Maurya
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'industrial dispute' (S.2(k)) covers disputes between employers-workmen, workmen-workmen, or employers-employers connected with employment, non-employment, or conditions of labour.

33. The contents of documents may be proved either by-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Primary evidence or by secondary evidence
B Direct evidence or circumstantial evidence
C Primary evidence or documentary evidence
D Primary evidence or direct evidence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the IT Act, cyber offences include hacking (S.66), identity theft (S.66C), cheating by personation (S.66D), cyber terrorism (S.66F), and publishing obscene content (S.67). Digital signatures have legal validity.

34. Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself, if seen, it is-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Direct evidence
B Best evidence
C Circumstantial evidence
Secondary evidence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a company is a separate legal entity (Salomon v. Salomon). It can own property, sue/be sued, and has perpetual succession. The corporate veil can be lifted in fraud/sham situations.

35. “The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof.” It was so held in which case-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Shaik Fakruddin u. Shaik Mohammed Hasan, AIR 2006 AP 48
B Siddaramesh v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 3 SCC 152
C Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 2007 SC 107
D Samwanti u. State of Punjab, AIR 1963 SC 151
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Income Tax Act, 'previous year' is the year income is earned; 'assessment year' is the following year when it's taxed. Residential status (R/NR/RNOR) determines scope of taxable income.

36. The statements of dead persons are relevant under which provision
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 48, Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B Section 49, Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Section 32(4), Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D Section 13(a), Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the government can acquire private land for public purpose. The LARR Act 2013 requires fair compensation (up to 4x market value in rural areas), rehabilitation, and consent of affected families.

37. “Witnesses are the eyes and ears of Justice”. Whose statement is this
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Lord Atkin
Bentham
C Lord Denning
D Phipson
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, the Central Government can take measures to protect the environment — setting standards, restricting industries, handling hazardous substances, and imposing penalties.

38. Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is an offence under which provision of Indian Penal Code, 1860.
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 120A
B Section 120B
Section 153A
D Section 226
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Arbitration Act, arbitral proceedings are flexible — the tribunal is not bound by CPC or Evidence Act (S.19). Awards must be in writing, reasoned, and can be challenged under S.34 on limited grounds.

39. The gist of this offence is meeting of minds
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 120A, IPC
B Section 133, IPC
C Section 221, IPC
D Section 340, IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, inherent power (S.151) allows courts to make orders necessary for ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process. This residual power fills gaps where no specific provision exists.

40. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells B that they will fire at B if B attempts to leave the building. What is the offence committed by A as against B
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Wrongful restraint
Wrongful confinement
C Refusal to leave the place
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'sale' (S.54) is transfer of ownership for price. Registration is mandatory for immovable property worth Rs. 100+. Delivery of tangible movable property completes sale.

41. Adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is punishable under
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 227. IPC
Section 272, IPC
C Section 277, IPC
D Section 273, IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'consideration' (S.2(d)) must move at the desire of the promisor. It can be past, present, or future. Consideration can flow from the promisee or any other person — unique to Indian law.

42. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt to deter public servant from his duty is
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Cognizable & non-bailable offence
B Non cognizable & bailable offence
C Cognizable & bailable offence
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, temporary injunction (Order XXXIX) requires three conditions: prima facie case, balance of convenience favouring applicant, and irreparable injury if injunction not granted. All three must be satisfied.

43. A obtains property from Z by saying – “Your child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless you send us Rs. 10,000”. This offence is
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Robbery
B Extortion
C Dacoity
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under IPC, Section 498A deals with cruelty by husband or his relatives against a married woman. It is cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable. The SC in Arnesh Kumar directed guidelines against misuse.

44. Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate, to record confessions and statements?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 164
B Section 162
C Section 163
D Section 164A
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'document' (S.3) includes any matter expressed on any substance by letters, figures, or marks — extremely broad, covering writing, photographs, maps, electronic records, and inscriptions.

45. Any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty or who has escaped, or attempts to escape, from lawful custody, under which section-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 41(1)(a)
B Section 41(1)(c)
Section 41(1)(e)
D Section 41(1)(d)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, Section 313 requires the court to examine the accused after prosecution evidence. The accused must explain incriminating circumstances. Failure to explain can be used as additional evidence against them.

46. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is upto a period of
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
7years
B 2 years
C 10 years
D 5 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 32 is a fundamental right itself — the right to approach the SC for enforcement of fundamental rights through writs. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul of the Constitution.'

47. Which provision under the Code of Criminal Procedure provides the indication as to the rule against double jeopardy?
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 300
B Section 305
C Section 309
D Section 311
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, declaratory decree (S.34) declares legal status or right to property without granting consequential relief. The plaintiff must have a subsisting legal character or right.

48. “If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such minor offence has been committed.” It was so upheld in which case:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Sangarabonia Sreenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
C Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
D Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, judicial separation (S.10) allows separation without dissolving marriage. After one year of judicial separation, either party can seek divorce — this is a cooling-off period.

49. The essence of a contract of agency is the agent’s-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Representative capacity coupled with a power to affect the legal relations of the principal with third persons
B Power and title to the property that is being dealt with
C Authority and status of dealing with the trade
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Partnership Act, partnership is based on mutual agency — each partner is an agent of the firm and can bind all partners by acts done in ordinary course of business.

50. “A Contract is an agreement between two or more persons which is intended to be enforceable at law and is contracted by the acceptance by one party of an offer made to him by the other party to do or abstain from doing some act”. - Whose statement is this?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Halsbury
B Salmond
C Phipson
D Pollock
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, the three negotiable instruments are: promissory note (S.4), bill of exchange (S.5), and cheque (S.6). Each has specific formal requirements for validity.

51. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. What is the type of contract called as-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Indemnity
B Guarantee
Bailment
D Pledge
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the Preamble secures justice (social, economic, political), liberty (thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (status, opportunity), and fraternity (dignity, unity).

52. A’s nephew has absconded from his home. He sent his servant to trace his missing nephew. When the servant had left,A then announced that anybody who discovers the missing boy would be rewarded. When the servant came to know about the reward, he brought an action against A to recover the same. But his action failed. It was held that the servant was not entitled to the reward because he did not know about the offer when he discovered the missing boy. Name the case on reading the facts.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt
B Donogue v. Stevenson
C Tweedle v. Atkinson
D Dutton v. Poole
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, res judicata (S.11) bars relitigation of decided matters between same parties. Five conditions: same parties, same matter, competent court, decided on merits, final decision.

53. A debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and he makes a payment which is insufficient to satisfy all the debts. In such a case, a question arises, as to which particular debt the payment is to be appropriated. Which sections of the Contract Act, 1872 provide an answer to this question?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Sections 59 to 61
B Sections 22 to 31
C Sections 10 to 12
D Sections 55 to 60
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, electronic records are admissible under S.65B with a mandatory certificate. The Anvar P.V. case (2014) settled that the S.65B certificate is an indispensable condition.

54. What property cannot be transferred under section 6 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A An easement apart from the dominant heritage
B An interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally
C A right to future maintenance, in whatsover manner arising, secured or determined
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'mortgage' (S.58) is transfer of interest in immovable property to secure a loan. Six types: simple, by conditional sale, usufructuary, English, equitable (deposit of title deeds), and anomalous.

55. A transfers property, of which he is the owner, to B in trust for A and his intended wife successively for their lives, and, after the death of the survivor, for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for A’s second son. Can the interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son take effect?
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A Yes
No
C It is a valid transfer
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CrPC, different courts have different sentencing powers. Sessions Court = any sentence including death. CJM = up to 7 years. JMFC = up to 3 years. JMSC = up to 1 year.

56. The commencement of arbitral proceedings is, not dependent on interim relief being allowed or denied under section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. Supreme court in which case held so
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Firm Ashok Traders v. Gurumukh Das Saluja
B M.M. T.C. Ltd. v. Sterile Industries (India) Ltd.
C National Thermal Power Corporation v. Flowmore (P .) Ltd.
D Magma Leasing Ltd. v. NEPC Micon Ltd.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 14 guarantees equality before law (no special privilege) and equal protection of laws (similar treatment for similar persons). Reasonable classification is permitted.

57. Which provision of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with conciliation
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 23
Section 23(2)
C Section 23(3)
D Section 22
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, 'caveat emptor' (buyer beware) is the general rule. Exceptions: fitness for purpose, merchantable quality, sale by description, sale by sample, and usage of trade.

58. Which section under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the settlement of disputes outside the court?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 98
B Section 99
Section 89
D Section 88
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'fraud' (S.17) vitiates consent. It includes: false representation of fact, active concealment, promise without intent to perform, any deceptive act, and acts declared fraudulent by law.

59. Accepting any other satisfaction than the performance originally agreed is known as
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A reciprocal agreement
B reciprocal acceptance
C reciprocal accord and satisfaction
accord and satisfaction
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under IPC, 'theft' (S.378) requires dishonest intention, movable property, moving out of possession without consent. 'Robbery' adds use of force or fear. 'Dacoity' is robbery by 5+ persons.

60. “Where two parties have made a contract which one of them has broken the damage which the other party ought to receive in respect of such breach of contract should be either such as may fairly and reasonably be considered arising naturally i.e. according to the usual course of things from. such breach of contract itself or such as may reasonably be supposed to have been in the contemplation of the parties at the time they made the contract as the probable result of breach of it”. In which case the principle was down so:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Clegg v. Hands
B Frost v. Knight
C Kapur Chand v. Himayat Ali Khan
Hadley v. Baxendale
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, directors owe fiduciary duties: act in good faith, avoid conflicts of interest, not make secret profits, exercise care and diligence. They are agents and trustees of the company.

61. When a misrepresentation has been made, what are the alternative courses open to an aggrieved
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A He can avoid or rescind the contract
B He can affirm the contract and insist on the misrepresentation being made
C He can rely upon the misrepresentation, as a defence to an action upon the contract
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, Order XXI governs execution of decrees. Methods: attachment and sale of property, arrest and detention of judgment-debtor, delivery of specific property, appointment of receiver.

62. A solicitor sold certain property to one of his clients. The client subsequently alleged that the property was considerably overvalued and his consent was caused by .......... Court considered the relationship between the parties to reach the decision.
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Coercion
B Misrepresentation
Undue influence
D Estoppel
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, only Hindus can adopt Hindus. Conditions: child must be Hindu, unmarried, under 15, and not already adopted. Male adopting female must be 21+ years older.

63. “The law of contract is intended to ensure that what a man has been led to expect shall come to pass, that what has been promised shall be performed.” Whose statement is this?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Lord Black
B Henderson
Anson
D Salmond
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under CrPC, Section 125 provides secular maintenance for wife, children, and parents unable to maintain themselves. It applies regardless of religion — all communities can claim under this criminal remedy.

64. Intention not to create a legal obligation was clear from the conduct of parties which among the popular cases deals on the topic.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Balfour v. Balfour
B Donogue v. Stevenson
C Derry v. Peek
D Birch v. Birch
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'admission' (S.17) is a statement suggesting an inference about a fact in issue. Admissions are not conclusive (S.31) but may operate as estoppel. They are substantive evidence.

65. According to the Indian law in a lawful contract, consideration
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Must move from promisee only
May move from promisee or any other person
C Is not necessary at all
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, separation of powers divides government into legislature (makes law), executive (implements), and judiciary (interprets). Though not absolute in India, checks and balances operate.

66. Raghav owes Murli Rs.10,000. This debt is time-barred by the Limitation Act. Even then Murli, promises in writing to pay Raghav Rs. 4,500 on account of debt and signs the document. This contract is
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Enforceable
B Unenforceable
C V oid
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, every suit/appeal must be filed within the prescribed period. Time runs from when cause of action arises. Section 5 allows condonation of delay in appeals/applications (not suits).

67. An agency can be terminated by
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Agreement between parties
B By renunciation by the agent
C By completion of business of agency
All the above.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Environmental Protection Act, the precautionary principle requires preventive measures when scientific uncertainty exists about environmental harm. The burden shifts to the developer to prove safety.

68. Which type of loss are not covered by a contract of indemnity
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Loss arising from accidents like fire or perils of the sea
B Loss caused by the promisor himself or by a third person
C Loss arising by human agency
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under administrative law, natural justice requires: nemo judex in causa sua (no bias) and audi alteram partem (hear both sides). These apply to all judicial, quasi-judicial, and administrative decisions.

69. _______ is the process whereby interested parties resolve disputes, agree upon courses of action, bargain for individual or collective advantage, and/or attempt to craft outcomes which serve their mutual interests.
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A Expert determination
B Arbitration
C Conciliation
Negotiation
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Negotiation is the most informal ADR method where parties themselves communicate directly to resolve disputes, bargain for advantage, and craft mutually beneficial outcomes — without any third-party intervention.

70. “The fundamental aim of Legal Ethics is to maintain the honour and dignity of the Legal Profession, to secure a spirit of friendly co- operation between the Bench and the Bar in the promotion of highest standards of justice, to establish honourable and fair dealings of the counsel with his client, opponent and witnesses; to establish a spirit of brotherhood in the Bar itself; and to secure that lawyers discharge their responsibilities to the community generally”. Whose statement is this?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Chief Justice Marshall
B Chief Justice Coke
C Chief Justice Halsbury
D Chief Justice Bacon
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'vested interest' (S.19) creates an immediate right to present or future enjoyment. It transfers to heirs on death. 'Contingent interest' (S.21) depends on an uncertain event.

71. The Supreme Court has held that an advocate cannot claim a lien over a litigation file entrusted to him for his fees no professional can be given the right to withhold the returnable records relating to the work done by him with his clients matter on the strength of any claim for unpaid remuneration. The alternative is the professional concerned can resort to other legal remedies for such unpaid remuneration. Refer to the specific case.
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
R.D. Saxena v. Balram Prasad Sharma
B V .C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan
C Emperor v. Dadu Ram
D G . Naranswamy v. ChalIapalIi
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, claims tribunals (MACT) adjudicate motor accident compensation. The multiplier method considers: annual income, age, dependency, and future prospects for calculating compensation.

72. Duty of an advocate towards his client is detailed out. in which Rules of Bar Council of India
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 33 to 38
11 to 33
C 23 to 27
D 33 to 36
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, Section 100 allows second appeal to the High Court only on 'substantial questions of law.' No second appeal on pure questions of fact. The HC must frame the substantial question before hearing.

73. Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with disqualification as to enrolment?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 25A
B Section 26A
C Section 27 A
Section 24A
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Copyright Act, protection lasts for author's lifetime plus 60 years. For photographs, films, and sound recordings, the term is 60 years from publication. Registration is not mandatory but advisable.

74. Existence of two suits, by parties litigating under same title, one previously instituted which is pending at present and the other filed later, wherein a matter in issue in the subsequently filed suit is directly and substantially in issue in the other and the relief claimed in the subsequent suit can effectively, be passed by the court of previous instance. Which section of CPC decides the fate of the subsequently filed suit and its proceeding?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 11
B Section 9
Section 10
D Section 12
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'coercion' (S.15) means committing or threatening to commit acts forbidden by IPC, or unlawful detention of property. A contract induced by coercion is voidable.

75. Where there are mutual debts between the plaintiff and the defendant, one debt may be settled against another. This can be a statutory defence to a plaintiff’s action and it is called as
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Cross-claim
Set-off
C Cross-demand
D Cross-decrees
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the IPC, Section 34 (common intention) creates constructive liability — each person acting in furtherance of common intention is liable as if they alone did the act. Prior concert must exist.

76. An attachment before judgment order takes away.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right to ownership
B Right to file suit
Power to alienate the property
D Capacity of execution of a decree.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Constitution, emergency provisions: national emergency (Art.352) suspends Art.19 rights; President's rule (Art.356) suspends state government; financial emergency (Art.360) allows salary reduction.

77. The three pillars on which foundation of every order of injunction rests
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Prima facie case, injury with damage and balance of inconvenience
B Prime facie case, reparable injury and balance of convenience
Prime facie case, irreparable injury and balance of convenience
D Prime facie case, damage without injury and balance of convenience.
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, a Hindu female's property devolves per S.15-16. Property from parents goes back to parent's heirs; property from husband goes to husband's heirs — the 'source' determines succession.

78. _______ is to enable subordinate courts to obtain in non-appealable cases the opinion of the High Court in the absence of a question of law and thereby avoid the commission of an error which could not be remedied later on.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Review
Reference
C Appeal
D Revision
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

A reference under Section 113 CPC allows subordinate courts to seek the High Court's opinion on questions of law in non-appealable cases. Since no appeal lies, a reference is the only way to get judicial guidance and avoid irreversible legal errors.

79. Contributory negligence means
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The failure by a person to use reasonable care for the safety of either of himself or his property
B V olunteer to pay for the negligence of others
C Contributing the money or money’s worth for other wrongs
D Inciting others to commit civil wrong.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, leading questions (S.141) suggest their own answer. Prohibited in examination-in-chief (S.142) but freely allowed in cross-examination (S.143). Court may permit in chief for introductory matters.

80. Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example, in escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortuous principle of strict liability.- Held in the case of
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Francis Caroli v. State
Shriram Food and Fertilizers case
C PUCL v. Union of India
D State of Punjab v. Mahinder Singh Chawla
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'undue influence' (S.16) exists when one party dominates the other's will. Fiduciary relationships (doctor-patient, parent-child, guru-disciple) create presumption of undue influence.

81. “A tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is an action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively the breach of a contract, or the breach of a trust, or the breach of other merely equitable obligation” - Whose Statement is this
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Winfield
Salmond
C Pollock
D Griffith
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Constitution, PIL relaxes locus standi — any public-spirited citizen can approach the court for enforcement of rights of disadvantaged persons. PIL can be filed under Art.32 (SC) or Art.226 (HC).

82. Under section 20 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 if a person is convicted of an offence punishable under section 189 of the Motor Vehicles Act, the court shall ordinarily order for
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Imposing penalty only
B Punishment only
C Both punishment and penalty
Disqualification under the act
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, 'gift' (S.122) is voluntary transfer without consideration. Immovable: registered instrument required. Movable: delivery sufficient. Donee's acceptance is essential.

84. Trading activities of a company were stopped temporarily in view of the trade depression with an intention to continue the same when the conditions improve. A petition was preferred into the Tribunal for winding-up of the company. The petition
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
is liable to be dismissed
B will succeed
C will be kept pending till the conditions improve
D will not be admitted.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, 'factory' means premises with 10+ workers (with power) or 20+ workers (without power) in manufacturing. The Act regulates working conditions, hours, safety, and welfare.

85. If a Quasi-judicial authority violates the principles of natural justice, the appropriate writ would be
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ivumdumus
B Habeas Corpus
C Quo Warranto
Certiorari
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 'retrenchment' (S.2(oo)) is termination for any reason except punishment. Requires: 1 month's notice, 15 days' wages per year of service, and last-come-first-go.

86. An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is a
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A presumption of fact
presumption of law
C conclusive of proof
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the IT Act, electronic records have legal validity (S.4), digital signatures are recognized (S.5), and electronic governance is promoted (S.6). The Act provides the legal framework for digital India.

87. Patent ambiguity in interpreting documents renders it.
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Curable
Incurable
C Curable and incurable
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, a decree (S.2(2)) is the formal expression of adjudication conclusively determining rights. It must be in a suit. Preliminary, final, or partly both. Must be drawn up separately from judgment.

88. “Provisions of section 195 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 are mandatory and non-compliance of it would initiate the prosecution and all other consequential orders”. In which case the court upheld so
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
C. Muniappan v. State of Tamil Nadu
B Kishun Singh v. State of Bihar
C State of Karnataka v. Pastor P . Raju
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, Section 45 makes expert opinions relevant on: foreign law, science, art, handwriting, and finger impressions. Experts assist the court but their opinion is advisory, not binding.

89. Order granting anticipatory bail becomes operative
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
on arrest
B prior to arrest
C on passing of the order by the court
D none of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, Article 368 provides the amendment procedure. Special majority (2/3 of members present and voting + majority of total membership) is required. Some provisions need state ratification too.

90. By the Constitution (97’h Amendment) Act, 2011 the following word has been inserted under Article 19(1)(c)
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Democratic Societies
B Registered Societies
Co-operative Societies
D Co-operative Management
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, 'mistake' of fact: bilateral mistake makes agreement void (S.20); unilateral mistake doesn't affect validity (S.22). Mistake of law is no defence (S.21).

91. Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation was discussed in the following case
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Ramkrishna Dalmia v. Justice Tendolkar
B M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
C State of Uttar Pradesh v. Deoman
Food Corporation of India v. Mis. Kamdhenu Cattle Feed Industries.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 'endorsement' (S.15) transfers the instrument. Types: blank (just signature), full (with endorsee name), restrictive (limits further negotiation), conditional, and partial.

92. The Supreme Court in Selvi v. State of Karnataka held that compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and NARCO analysis were in violation of the following articles of the Constitution.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Articles 23 and 24
B Articles 15 and 16
C Articles 29 and 30
Articles 20 and 21
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, territorial jurisdiction (S.16-20): immovable property suits where property is situated (S.16); other suits where defendant resides or cause of action arose (S.20).

93. “Passive Euthanasia is permitted in certain cases” - held in
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Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India
B Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
C P. Rathinam v. Union of India
D State of Maharasthra v. Chandrabeii
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 'consumer' includes buyers of goods and hirers of services for consideration. Excludes: persons buying for commercial resale. Only end-users are protected.

94. The type of disablement envisaged under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 that reduces the capacity to work in any employment similar to that the worker was performing at the time of the accident is referred to a-
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Permanent partial disablement
B Permanent total disablement
C Temporary disablement
D Temporary total disablement
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Constitution, fundamental duties (Art.51A) include: respecting Constitution/flag/anthem, defending India, promoting harmony, protecting environment, developing scientific temper, and striving for excellence.

95. The contribution payable under the ESI Act in respect of an employee shall comprise of-
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A contribution payable by the employer only
B contribution payable by the employee only
C contribution payable by the government only
contribution payable by the employer and employee
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, the Collector issues notice, conducts hearing, makes award, and disburses compensation. The landowner can challenge inadequacy of compensation under S.18 by reference to court.

96. Which provision under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 guarantees the right of workmen laid off to claim for compensation
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A Section 25-O
B Section 26
Section 2S-C
D Section 2S-M
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Industrial Disputes Act, specific provisions govern strikes, lockouts, layoffs, retrenchment, and closure. These require notice periods and compliance with statutory procedures to be legally valid.

97. Natural law is the idea that
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there are rational objective limits to the power of legislative rulers
B there are no limits to the power of legislative rulers
C there are limits to the power of the executive laid by the legislature
D Law is the command of the sovereign
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Natural law theory holds that law is derived from universal moral principles inherent in human nature — not just from legislation or social conventions. It posits a higher law that human-made law must conform to.

98. H.L.A. Hart’s name is associated with the book
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A Province and Function of Law
The Concept of Law
C Social Dimensions of Law
D Theories of Social Change
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

H.L.A. Hart is associated with legal positivism, particularly his concept of law as a system of primary rules (conduct rules) and secondary rules (rules about rules — recognition, change, adjudication).

99. Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with
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Restitution of Conjugal Rights
B V oid Marriages
C Judicial Separation
D Grounds of Divorce
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for restitution of conjugal rights. When one spouse withdraws from the other's society without reasonable excuse, the aggrieved spouse can petition the court for a decree of restitution.

100. Daughter is equated with the son with references to joint family property under
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A Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act. 2002
B Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 1976
C Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 1978
Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 made daughters coparceners by birth with equal rights as sons in joint Hindu family property. This landmark amendment eliminated gender discrimination in Hindu succession law.