AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE X — March 2017

AIBE X — March 2017 — Complete Questions with Answers

100 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 March 2017
1. The objective of the EU Directive on mediation is:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Reducing back logs of cases at the courts in the member states
B Dividing the cases between all dispute resolution methods
C Economical reasons in times of crisis, thus ensuring that mediators will have a proper income
Ensuring better access to alternative dispute resolution in cross border commercial conflicts
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Ensuring better access to ADR in cross-border commercial disputes is the EU Mediation Directive's primary objective — promoting cost-effective alternatives to litigation for international commercial conflicts.

2. Fulfilling the constitutional obligation under Article 300A, the Land Acquisition Act, is the law providing for:
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Acquisition of land and taking over possession of land
B Assessment of compensation
C Payment of compensation
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Article 300A requires deprivation of property only by authority of law. The Land Acquisition Act fulfills this — providing for acquisition, compensation assessment, and payment, covering the complete lawful property-taking process.

3. Minto-Morley reform is associated with which Act?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Indian Council Act, 1912
B Indian Council Act, 1856
C Indian Council Act, 1908
Indian Council Act, 1909
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Minto-Morley Reforms (Indian Councils Act, 1909) introduced separate electorates for Muslims and expanded legislative councils. Lord Minto (Viceroy) and Lord Morley (Secretary of State) architected these reforms.

4. Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon is an important case relating to professional misconduct due to which factor:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Advocate attending the court with fire arms
B Not appearing before the court deliberately and intentionally
C Suppression of material facts with intention to harass poor persons
Defrauding the client by exploiting the client’s illiteracy
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon relates to a specific legal principle in family/civil law. The case name and its associated holding must be studied before the exam.

5. Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined without proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to appropriate laboratory for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within ____ days
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 30 days
B 40 days
45 days
D 50 days
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Consumer complaints alleging product defects are heard by the appropriate consumer forum based on the value of goods/services and the compensation claimed.

6. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 5
6
C 7
D 8
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 gave daughters equal coparcenary rights as sons in joint Hindu family property, effective from September 9, 2005. This was a landmark reform in gender equality in property rights.

7. The various words used to denote Mens Rea under the IPC and are defined in the code itself are:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Voluntary, dishonestly, fraudulently & reason to believe
B Corruptly and want only
C Malignantly and maliciously
D Rashly and negligently
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A valid Muslim marriage requires: offer (ijab) and acceptance (qubul), two competent witnesses, dower (mahr), and both parties being competent. The specific condition NOT required is the answer.

8. Under Section 25 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the amount of compensation awarded by the court-
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Shall not be less than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
B Shall not be equal to the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
C Shall not be more than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Indian Christian Marriage Act, marriage must be solemnized between 6 AM and 7 PM (unless special license). The minister or clergyman must be authorized, and two credible witnesses are required.

9. A Hindu’s widow, if there are more than one, shall take-
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A One share each
One share for all the widows
C One share each to the maximum of two shares, if there are more than two widows
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 125 CrPC provides maintenance to wife, children, and parents. It is secular — applies to all religions. The Magistrate can order monthly maintenance based on the respondent's income.

10. In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been discussed by the Supreme Court in:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P .
B State of U.P . v. Deorman Upadhyay
C Ram Bharose v. State of U.P .
D Rameshwar v. State of Rajasthan
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Factories Act, 'manufacturing process' means any process for making, altering, repairing, ornamenting, finishing, packing, oiling, washing, cleaning, breaking up, demolishing, or otherwise treating any article or substance.

11. Minimum number of members required to apply for Incorporation Certificate in a Public Ltd. Company is:
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
7
B 3
C 2
D 50
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A Trade Mark must be distinctive and capable of distinguishing one trader's goods/services from another's. It can include words, logos, shapes, colors, sounds, and combinations thereof.

12. Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adapted by any traders or service provider.
B The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defect
C A traders or the service provider as the case may be has charged for the goods or for the services mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 66 of the IT Act deals with computer-related offences — dishonestly or fraudulently doing any act referred to in Section 43 (unauthorized access, data theft, virus introduction) is punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years and/or fine.

13. In a written statement, the defendant can claim:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Set off
B Counter-claim
Both (a) & (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The concept of sustainable development balances economic growth with environmental protection, ensuring present needs are met without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs.

14. An appeal to the High Court against the order of IT AT should be filed within:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 45 days when the order is communicated
B 60 days when the order is communicated
C 90 days when the order is communicated
120 days when the order is communicated
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, service disputes of government employees are adjudicated by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and State Administrative Tribunals, established under Article 323A.

15. When can the Supreme Court refuse to grant remedy under Article 32?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Delay
B Malicious petition
C Infructuous petition
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Arbitration Act provides for appointment of arbitrators by parties' agreement, or failing that, by the court under Section 11. An odd number of arbitrators (usually 1 or 3) is preferred.

16. In respect of family relations the law applicable in India is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Secular law in India
B Statutory law
C Religious law
Personal law of the parties
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 14 of the Limitation Act saves the time spent bona fide prosecuting in a court without jurisdiction. If a suit is filed in the wrong court, the time spent there is excluded when re-filing in the correct court.

17. The term sabbatical is connected with
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Paid leave for study
B Paternity leave
C Maternity leave
D Quarantine leave
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Order XXI CPC governs execution of decrees. The decree-holder can apply for execution by various methods: attachment and sale of property, arrest and detention, delivery of specific property, or appointment of a receiver.

18. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to pay a certain sum of money is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Conditional
Unconditional
C May be conditional or unconditional depending upon the circumstances
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, an appeal lies from every decree unless specifically barred. The right of appeal must be exercised within the limitation period (usually 30-90 days depending on the type of appeal and court).

19. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after dissolution of marriage, he/ she has born within:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 180 days
B 270 days
280 days
D 300 days
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 89 CPC empowers courts to refer parties to ADR — arbitration, conciliation, Lok Adalat, or mediation — when settlement elements appear acceptable. This promotes out-of-court dispute resolution.

20. Maintenance application under Section 18(2) of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act is filed in
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Matrimonial Court
District Court
C High Court
D Any of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The right to life under Article 21 has been expansively interpreted to include: right to livelihood, right to shelter, right to health, right to clean environment, right to education, right to privacy, and right to die with dignity.

21. There is either theft or extortion, it is
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Robbery
B Dacoity
C Criminal breach of trust
D Receiving stolen property
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, restitution of conjugal rights (S.9) allows a spouse to petition the court when the other has withdrawn from cohabitation without reasonable excuse. The court can decree that the respondent resume cohabitation.

22. In most EU member countries, which of the following is the most visible form of ADR?
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Mediation
Arbitration
C Litigation
D Conciliation
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Muslim law, a woman's right to divorce includes: Talaq-i-tafweez (delegated divorce), Khula (at wife's instance with consideration), Mubarat (mutual divorce), and judicial divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939.

23. Which one of the following is known as Consumer Disputes Redressal Agency?
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A District Forum
B State Commission
C National Commission
All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 9 of CPC provides that courts shall try all suits of a civil nature unless barred. The presumption is in favor of jurisdiction — exclusion must be express or clearly implied.

24. The rule is that penal statutes must be constructed:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Liberally
Strictly
C Golden rule
D Mischievous rule
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Industrial Disputes Act aims to prevent and settle industrial disputes through conciliation, arbitration, and adjudication. It protects workers from unfair dismissal and provides machinery for dispute resolution.

25. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team to serve as National Agency for incident response is constituted under section:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 71 of IT Act
B 70 of IT Act
C 70(a) of IT Act
70(b) of IT Act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, transfer of immovable property requires: competent transferor, competent transferee, lawful consideration, lawful object, and compliance with transfer formalities (writing + registration for properties over Rs. 100).

26. In relation to Relevancy of Character in civil cases, which of the following is not correct?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
It is not at all relevant
B It is relevant when it affects award of damage
C When character is itself an issue
D When it appears from the fact otherwise relevant
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Indian Evidence Act classifies evidence into oral evidence (statements by witnesses in court) and documentary evidence (documents and electronic records produced for inspection). Both together constitute the evidentiary framework.

27. The chief elements necessary to constitute a crime are:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A human being
B An evil intent
C Injury to another human being or society
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, a decree can be preliminary (determining rights but needing further proceedings), final (completely disposing the suit), or partly preliminary and partly final. The classification affects appealability and execution.

28. Income which accrue or arise outside India but are directly received into India are taxable in case of:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Residents only
Both ordinarily residents and non-residents
C Non-resident
D All the assesses
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 482 CrPC preserves the inherent powers of the High Court to prevent abuse of court process or to secure the ends of justice. This power is extraordinary and exercised sparingly.

29. The provision relating to Abolition of Untouchability is given in:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 23
B Article 24
Article 17
D Article 15
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Specific Relief Act provides for: specific performance of contracts, rectification of instruments, rescission of contracts, cancellation of instruments, declaratory decrees, and injunctions (temporary and perpetual).

30. Where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a. sentence of fine not exceeding Rs. 100, against this order where an appeal shall lie:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A In the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
B In the Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
C Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, a company's memorandum of association defines its powers, objects, and relationship with the outside world. Alteration requires special resolution and compliance with specific procedures.

31. Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labour dispute to-
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Internal Labour Department
B Bureau of Labour Relations
C Public Sector Labour-Management Council
D Department of Labour
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 300 IPC defines murder — culpable homicide becomes murder when the act is done with intention to cause death, or with intention to cause bodily injury known to be likely to cause death, or if the act is imminently dangerous.

32. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Who has completed 17 years of age
B Who is less than 18 years of age
Who is more than 15 years but less than 18 years of age
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The right of private defence under IPC extends to causing death in specific situations: reasonable apprehension of murder, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, and wrongful confinement with apprehension of no recourse to authorities.

33. ‘A’ does not fall under the clause of Memorandum of Association. ‘A’ here is:
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Subscription
Director
C Capital
D Situation
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 34 IPC, when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention, each person is liable as if the act was done by them alone. Common intention must be proved — prior concert is not always necessary.

34. PIL is criticised on the ground of:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Private motive
B Political ends
C Tremendous increase in the litigation
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Professional ethics require advocates to: maintain court dignity, not mislead the court, keep client confidences, not accept conflicting briefs, charge reasonable fees, and uphold the rule of law above all other obligations.

35. To close down a factory the occupier has to give how many days notice to the authorities:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 30 days
60 days
C 90 days
D 14 days
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Consumer Protection Act provides a three-tier grievance redressal mechanism: District Commission, State Commission, and National Commission — based on the value of goods/services and compensation claimed.

36. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, came into force on:
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 18th November, 1986
19th November, 1986
C 20th November, 1986
D 21st November, 1986
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Penal Code, theft (S.378) requires: dishonest intention, moving of movable property, taking out of possession of the lawful owner, and without consent. All elements must coexist.

37. What should be the difference of age under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, if a female adopts male:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
21 years
B 25 years
C 18 years
D 16 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 498A IPC deals with cruelty by husband or his relatives against a married woman. It is a cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years and fine.

38. “Dealer” includes a person who is engaged-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A In building bodies for attachment to chassis; or
B In the repair of motor vehicles; or
C In the business of hypothecation, leasing or hire-purchase of motor vehicle;
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Muslim personal law, inheritance rules are based on the Quran and differ from Hindu succession law. Fixed shares (specified heirs) are distributed first, followed by residuary heirs.

39. ‘A’, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of ‘Z’, who suffers under a painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death & intending in good faith Z’s benefit performs that operation on Z, with Z’s consent. A has committed no offence, it is contained in:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 88 of the IPC
B Section’ 89 of the IPC
C Section 90 of the IPC
D Section 87 of the IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Right to Information Act, 2005 gives citizens the right to access government information. Every public authority must designate a Public Information Officer, and information must be provided within 30 days.

40. Under Section 115, CPC, in the exercise of its revisional jurisdiction, a High Court can do which of the following things:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
To call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court, subordinate to the High Court.
B To vary/reverse any decree or order against which an appeal lies to the High Court
C Both (a) & (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Motor Vehicles Act, third-party insurance is mandatory for all motor vehicles. The owner/driver is liable for compensation in case of accidents — no-fault liability applies under Section 140.

41. A warrant of arrest may be extended:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A To that place where the offender has committed the offence
At any place within India
C To the place specified under the Criminal Procedure Code
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as the relation between persons who agree to share profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. Partnership is based on mutual agency.

42. Which is not included within the meaning of artistic work under Copyright Act?
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Drawing
B Work of architecture
C Work of craftsmanship
Work of carpenter
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Limitation Act, every suit must be filed within the prescribed period. Time begins to run from the date the cause of action arises. Section 3 bars suits filed after the limitation period.

43. Which of the following statement is correct?
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A confession made by an accused to the police officer is relevant
B A confession made by an accused in police custody to a magistrate is not relevant
C A confession made by an accused in the police custody and discovery made from the information received from confession, both confession and discovery are relevant
None of the above is correct
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The doctrine of frustration (S.56 Indian Contract Act) renders a contract void when performance becomes impossible or unlawful after formation, due to events beyond the parties' control that fundamentally alter the nature of the obligation.

44. In which of the following cases a Set Off can be claimed?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A’ owes the partnership firm of ‘B’ & ‘e’ Rs. 1000/-. B dies leaving C surviving. A sues C to a debt of Rs. 1500/ - due in his separate character. C wants to set off the debt of Rs. 1000/-.
B A sues B for Rs. 20,000/-. B wants to set off the claim for damages for breach of contract for specific performance.
C Both (a) & (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act makes dishonour of cheque for insufficient funds a criminal offence punishable with imprisonment up to 2 years and/or fine up to twice the cheque amount.

45. It refers to an authority derived from official character merely, not expressly conferred upon the individual character, but rather annexed to official position:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Designation
Ex-Officio
C Appointment
D Ad interim
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Hindu law, adoption creates a complete severance from the birth family and full integration into the adoptive family. The adopted child becomes the legitimate child of the adoptive parents for all purposes.

46. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Process of Conciliation
B Process of Arbitration
C Enforcement of Foreign Awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
D All the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides civil remedies to women subjected to domestic violence — protection orders, residence orders, monetary relief, custody orders, and compensation orders.

47. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 27
28
C 29
D 30
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, a confession made to a police officer is inadmissible (S.25). A confession during police custody is inadmissible unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate (S.26). Only the portion leading to discovery is admissible (S.27).

48. Which of the following sections of Cr.P.C. deals with the provisions relating to maximum period for which an under trial prisoner can be detained:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 436
436A
C 437A
D 437
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976). The Preamble is part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati).

49. The Right of Equality before the law under Article 14, is subject to the restriction of ___
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Public order and morality
Reasonable classification
C Reasonable restriction
D Reasonable situations
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Article 368, constitutional amendments require: introduction as a Bill in either House, passage by special majority (2/3 of members present and voting + majority of total membership) in both Houses, and Presidential assent.

50. Under Section 114, a person can apply for review of judgment when:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal is allowed.
B He is aggrieved by a decree/ order from which no appeal is allowed.
C He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a court of small causes.
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Navigate

Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 27 of the Evidence Act creates an exception to the bar on confessions to police — if information received from an accused in police custody leads to discovery of a fact, that portion of the information is admissible.

51. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the:
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
B State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
C Central Government
D Central Government in consultation with Controller of Certifying Authority
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Environmental Protection Act, 1986 is an umbrella legislation empowering the Central Government to take all necessary measures to protect and improve the environment. It covers standards, prohibitions, and penalties.

52. In case of a co-operative society the maximum amount on which income tax is not chargeable is:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 50,000
B 30,000
C 20,000
Nil
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Income Tax Act, agricultural income is exempt from central income tax under Section 10(1). However, for computing tax on non-agricultural income, agricultural income is aggregated (for rate purposes only).

53. Pre-emption on the ground of Shafie-i-jar was declared unconstitutional in:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Bhau Ram v. Baij Nath
B Govind Dayal v. Inayatullah
C Bhaguian Dass v. Chetram
D Ram Saran Lall v. Mst. Domini Kuer
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 aims to minimize court intervention in arbitral proceedings. Section 5 explicitly provides that no judicial authority shall intervene except where so provided by the Act.

54. Which case is leading case on arrest:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P .
B State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu
Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Section 11 CPC, res judicata bars relitigation of matters directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties. The previous decision must have been by a competent court and must be final.

55. Filing with the court, to object owns or another’s imprisonment is called:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Writ of Quo Warranto
Habeas Corpus
C Writ of Prohibition
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws. 'Equality before law' is a negative concept (absence of privileges); 'equal protection' is a positive concept (equal treatment in equal circumstances).

56. Under which Supreme Court judgment, action of the President to summon, Prorogue and dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament, shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, AIR 1975 SC 2299
B Anandan v. Chiej Secretary, AIR 1966 SC 657
Rao v. Indira Gandhi, AIR 1971 SC 1002
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The right against exploitation (Articles 23-24) prohibits forced labour, human trafficking, and employment of children below 14 in hazardous occupations. Article 23 applies against both state and private persons.

57. What is the Special Constitutional Position of Jammu and Kashmir?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It is above Indian Constitution
B Indian laws are not applicable
It has its own Constitution
D It is not of the integral parts of Indian Union
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, 'goods' means every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money. It includes stock, shares, growing crops, grass, and things attached to or forming part of land when agreed to be severed.

58. To make the criminal harmless by supplying him those things which he lacks and to cure him of those drawbacks which made him to commit crime is known as
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Expiatory or penance theory of punishment
B Deterrent theory or preventive theory of punishment
Reformative or rehabilitative or corrective theory of punishment
D Retributive theory of punishment
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 300A (right to property as constitutional right) can be enforced through Article 226 (HC writ) or by filing a civil suit. It cannot be enforced through Article 32 (SC) since it is not a fundamental right.

59. The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill J. in:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Reg v. Guruchand Gope
Reg v. Govinda
C Reg v. Hayward
D Govind v. Reg
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 167 CrPC, if the chargesheet is not filed within the prescribed period (60/90 days), the accused is entitled to default bail. This is a right, not discretion — the Magistrate must grant it if applied for.

60. Which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is an exception”
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P .
Mati Ram v. State of M.P .
C Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D State ofW.B. v. D.K. Basu
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Factories Act defines 'factory' as any premises with 10+ workers (with power) or 20+ workers (without power) where manufacturing is carried on. The Act ensures health, safety, and welfare of factory workers.

61. Which of the following heirs is not class I heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Son
B Widow
Father
D Mother
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 45 of the Evidence Act makes expert opinion relevant on matters of foreign law, science, art, handwriting, or finger impressions. Experts assist the court but their opinion is not binding — the court can disregard it.

62. According to Republic Act No. 6770, which of these powers is not provided to office of Ombudsman
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Prosecutory power
Function to adopt, institute and implement, preventive measures
C Public assistant functions
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Order XXXIX CPC, temporary injunction requires: prima facie case in applicant's favour, balance of convenience favouring the applicant, and irreparable injury if injunction is not granted.

63. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a factory under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Accounts manager
B HR manager
C Floor manager
Owner
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, judicial separation (S.10) is a relief short of divorce — the parties remain married but are not obligated to cohabit. After one year of judicial separation, either party can seek divorce.

64. Natural guardian of an adopted son under the Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956 is:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Original father
B In the absence of (a), original mother
Adoptive father
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The National Green Tribunal, established under the NGT Act 2010, has jurisdiction over environmental disputes involving substantial questions relating to environment. It has original and appellate jurisdiction.

65. The concept of “plea bargaining” is not applicable to the offence committed against:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A women
B A child
Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 24 of the Evidence Act excludes confessions caused by inducement, threat, or promise from a person in authority. The confession must be voluntary — any element of coercion vitiates it completely.

66. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 13
B 20
C 24
25
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

The doctrine of lifting the corporate veil allows courts to look behind the company's separate legal personality in cases of fraud, tax evasion, enemy character, or when the company is used as a sham to defeat public policy.

67. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the Law of Mitakshara has been incorporated:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 8
B Section 7
C Section 9
Section 6
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Criminal Procedure Code, every offence is either cognizable (police can arrest without warrant) or non-cognizable (need warrant). The First Schedule classifies each IPC offence as either type.

68. Who are the parties in a bill of exchange
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Drawer and Drawee
B Payee
Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Article 21A (inserted by 86th Amendment, 2002) makes education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14. The Right to Education Act, 2009 gives effect to this constitutional mandate.

69. A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree at the hearing and upon the:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Demand of the party
B Discretion of the Court
Merit of the suit
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance is granted when monetary compensation is inadequate remedy. It is discretionary — the court considers whether damages would be sufficient, whether the contract is fair, and whether performance is possible.

70. Under which section of CPC, option for settlement of dispute is provided outside the Court?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 80(1)
B 89(2) .
89(1)
D 80(2)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 113B of the Evidence Act creates a presumption of dowry death when a woman dies within 7 years of marriage under unnatural circumstances and was subjected to cruelty/harassment for dowry.

71. ‘A’ resides at Shimla, ‘B’ at Kolkata and ‘C’ at Delhi. A, B & C being together at Banaras. B & C make a joint promissory note, payable on demand and delivered to A. A may sue B & C
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A At Banaras, where the cause of action arose
B At Kolkata where B resides
C At Delhi where C resides
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Hindu law, a joint Hindu family consists of persons lineally descended from a common ancestor and includes their wives and unmarried daughters. Coparcenary is a narrower concept — only those who can claim partition by birth.

72. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that ‘misconduct envisages breach of discipline’-
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A P .D. Gupta v. Ram Murti
Noratanmal Chouraria v. M.R. Murli
C P J Ratnam v. D. Kanikaram
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 498A IPC (cruelty by husband/relatives) is a cognizable and non-bailable offence. Filing of false cases under S.498A has been a concern — the SC in Arnesh Kumar directed guidelines to prevent misuse.

73. Which is the leading case on environment?
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B Union of India v. H.S. Dhillon
C Malleka Gandhi v. Union of India
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Contract Act, a minor's agreement is void ab initio (Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose). A minor cannot ratify the agreement on attaining majority, and the other party cannot claim restitution.

74. In the Government of India Act, 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list?
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Marriage
B Divorce & Arbitration
C Criminal Law & Procedure
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Arbitration Act mandates that arbitral awards be in writing and signed by members of the tribunal. The award must state reasons (unless parties agree otherwise) and be dated and signed at the place of arbitration.

75. A contract of “Indemnity” under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has been defined in Section:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
124
B 123
C 125
D 126(a)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 20 CPC, a suit can be filed where the defendant resides or carries on business, or where the cause of action wholly or partly arises. This determines territorial jurisdiction for personal suits.

76. Liability of drawer to compensate the drawee in case of dishonour is primarily provided under-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 29 (a)
B Section 29
Section 30
D Section 31
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
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Check the referenced provision in the relevant Act to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Indian Penal Code applies to: all persons within India, Indian citizens abroad (S.4), persons on Indian ships/aircraft, and persons targeting Indian computer resources. Extra-territorial jurisdiction is limited but exists.

77. Which of the following case is leading case in term of ‘deliberate delay in filing of the suit’ resulting in huge losses to the complainant?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Prof Krishanraj Goswami v. Vishwanath D. Mukashikar
B Pratap Narayan v. Y . P . Raheja
C Babulal Jain v. Subhash Jain
D John D’ souza v. Edward Ani
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Consumer Protection Act, a 'consumer' includes both a buyer of goods and a hirer of services. A person who buys goods for commercial resale is NOT a consumer — only end-users are protected.

78. In which of the following cases, it was said that “unless a right of appeal is clearly given by statute it does not exist”.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
M/s. Ram Narayan Pvt. Ltd. v. Trading Corporation Ltd., AIR 1983 SC 786
B Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh v. AddI. Registrar, AIR 1962 All. 439
C Zair Hussain Khan v. Khurshed Jain, (1906) ILR 28 ALL 545
D Smt. Gangabai v. Vijaya Kumar, AIR 1974, SC 1126
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The principle of natural justice requires: nemo judex in causa sua (no one should judge their own case) and audi alteram partem (hear the other side). Both must be followed in judicial, quasi-judicial, and administrative decisions.

79. A reference can be made during the pendency:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of law.
B The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of evidence
C The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of fact
D The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of court procedure.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Transfer of Property Act, an 'actionable claim' means a debt or beneficial interest in movable property not in the possession of the claimant. Assignment of actionable claims must follow Section 130 TPA.

80. The theoretical powers to amend the Constitution, has been given to the Members of Parliament and State Legislatures by:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 358
Article 368
C Article 378
D No such powers
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act prescribes that only a Hindu can adopt a Hindu. The adoptive parent must have capacity (S.7-8), the child must be capable of being adopted (S.10), and conditions of S.11 must be met.

81. Under Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, the admission of which of the following person is not admissible against the other:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A One of the plaintiffs
B One of the defendants
C Agents of the parties
Statement of the third party
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CrPC, the Magistrate must explain the charge to the accused in a language they understand. The accused must be given opportunity to plead — guilty plea must be recorded in the accused's own words.

82. A sells a field to B. There is a right of way over the field of which A has direct personal knowledge but which he conceals from B.
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
B has the right to rescind the contract
B B cannot rescind the contract
C A has the right to rescind the contract
D A is not legally liable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Workmen's Compensation Act (now Employees Compensation Act) provides for fixed statutory compensation to employees for workplace injuries, disabilities, and death — regardless of employer's negligence.

83. This section was enacted to meet the cases of dowry deaths. It is:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 366A of IPC
B Section 477 A of IPC
Section 498A of IPC
D Section 489A of IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
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✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Sale of Goods Act, implied conditions include: right to sell (S.14), description (S.15), quality and fitness (S.16), and sample (S.17). Breach of condition gives the buyer the right to reject goods.

84. What is the maximum number of witness which can be produced in a case?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 5
B 10
C 15
No limit
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Article 32 is a fundamental right itself — Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul of the Constitution.' It guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.

85. Under Order 33, an indigent is allowed to prosecute any suit, provided he satisfied certain conditions. Which of the following is not such a condition?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A He is not possessed of sufficient means to enable him to pay the fees prescribed for the plaint in such suit
B He is not entitled to property worth Rs. 1000
He has no sufficient means for his livelihood
D He may present the application for permission to sue as an indigent either himself or through an authorized agent
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Indian Registration Act, compulsory registration is required for: instruments transferring immovable property worth over Rs. 100, non-testamentary instruments creating interest in immovable property, and leases exceeding one year.

86. A decree can be transferred for execution to another court:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A If the judgment debtor actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, within the local limits of jurisdiction of such court.
B If the judgment debtor has property sufficient to satisfy the decree within the limits of that court.
C If the decree directs the sale of delivery of immovable property situated outside the local limits of jurisdiction of the court which passed it.
All of the above.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The doctrine of severability means if a law is partly constitutional and partly unconstitutional, the unconstitutional part can be struck down while the valid part survives — provided the two parts are separable.

87. Motor Vehicles Act, 1939, came into force in:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
1939
B 1940
C 1941
D 1942
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 125 CrPC, a wife, minor children, and parents unable to maintain themselves can claim maintenance from a person with sufficient means. The provision is religion-neutral and protective in nature.

88. Recently, in which case the Kerala High Court held that a University Grant Commission criterion which allowed certain relaxation in marks to reserved categories as violation of Article 16(1) of the Constitution:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Nair Service Society v. UGC, WP(C) No 5190 of 2016(W)
B CBSE v. UGC, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W)
C No 5190 of 2016(W) (b)CBSE v. UGC, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W) (c)UGC v. State Of Kerala, WP(C) No. 5190 of2016(W)
D UGC v. Secretary of State, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process requires evaluation of potential environmental consequences before approving development projects. It includes screening, scoping, public hearing, and appraisal stages.

89. Which of the following sections enables the Court to cancel the bond and bail bond?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
446-A
B 446
C 448
D 450
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Companies Act, every company must have a registered office from the day of commencement of business. All communications and notices must be sent to this address, and it determines the company's domicile.

90. Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax?
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Goods and Services Tax
B Excise duty and customs duty
Income tax and gift tax
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act provides for admissibility of electronic records. A certificate under S.65B is mandatory for producing electronic evidence — this was settled in Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer (2014).

91. When a bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the same?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bill approved
Law
C Bill exercised for administration
D Government procedures
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the Arbitration Act, the arbitral tribunal's jurisdiction can be challenged under Section 16 (kompetenz-kompetenz principle) — the tribunal can rule on its own jurisdiction, including objections about the arbitration agreement's existence or validity.

92. The maxim-”audi alteram partem” denotes:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A No one shall be judge of his own cause
No one shall be condemned unheard
C Rights are better than duties
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The right to constitutional remedy (Article 32/226) includes five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. Each serves a different purpose in protecting citizen rights.

93. Which of the following Section deals with search warrant:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
93
B 94
C 95
D 96
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Partnership Act, every partner has the authority to bind the firm by acts done in the ordinary course of the firm's business. This is called 'implied authority' — it arises from the partnership relationship itself.

94. A contract can be specifically enforced:
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Where compensation is adequate relief for the non-performance of the contract
B Where the contract by its nature is determinable
C Where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the court ‘Cannot supervise
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines two types: civil contempt (disobedience of court orders) and criminal contempt (acts scandalizing the court, prejudicing proceedings, or interfering with administration of justice).

95. Which condition is not required to be satisfied by an invention to be patentable subject- matter under Patent Act?
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Novelty
B Inventive steps
Distinctiveness
D Usefulness
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Section 47 CPC, all questions arising between parties to a suit relating to execution, discharge, or satisfaction of a decree shall be determined by the court executing the decree. This is the executing court's inherent power.

96. Which writ is issued by the court to quash the wrongful order of a lower court?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Mandamus
B Quo warranto
C Prohibition
Certiorari
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005 made India's patent law TRIPS-compliant by introducing product patents for all fields of technology including pharmaceuticals and food. Previously, only process patents were granted for these.

97. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A He is a minor
B He is an opposite party in the suit
C He has not given consent in writing
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CPC, a 'next friend' acts on behalf of a minor plaintiff (suing for the minor), while a 'guardian ad litem' represents a minor defendant. Neither can compromise the suit without court permission.

98. Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor is a leading case on:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Dying Declaration
B Admission
Confession
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor is a leading case on confessions. The Privy Council defined confession as a statement that either admits guilt in terms or admits substantially all the facts which constitute the offence charged. A mixed statement partly inculpatory and partly exculpatory is NOT a confession.

99. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council of India under section 36 or 37 of the Advocates Act, may prefer an appeal to the:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A High Court
Supreme Court
C State Government
D Central Government
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
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✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 38 of the Advocates Act, any person aggrieved by an order of the BCI disciplinary committee may appeal to the Supreme Court within 60 days. The SC can vary the punishment — even making it more severe after hearing the advocate.

100. The provisions relating to compoundable offence is provided under Section ____of Cr.P.C.
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 319
320
C 265(d)
D (d) 321
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 320 CrPC deals with compounding of offences. Certain offences can be compounded (settled between parties) — some with court permission, others without. Compounding ends prosecution and bars further proceedings on the same facts.