97 questions · Correct answers · Bare act strategy · Step-by-step walkthroughs
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 19(1)(a), 19(2)
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Sedition is NOT listed as a ground for restricting Article 19(1)(a) free speech. The permissible restrictions under Article 19(2) are: sovereignty/integrity, security of state, friendly foreign relations, public order, decency/morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to offence.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 19(1)(a)
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 19(1)(a) — freedom of speech — is available ONLY to citizens, not foreigners. Contrast with Articles 20, 21, 25 which protect ALL persons (citizens and non-citizens alike). The word 'citizen' in Article 19 restricts its scope.
The President can be removed only through impeachment for 'violation of the Constitution' under Article 61. Not for 'proved misbehaviour' (that's for SC/HC judges under Article 124/217) or mere incapacity. The ground is specifically constitutional violation.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 16
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
The designation of 'Senior Advocate' is provided under Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961. An advocate can be designated as Senior Advocate by the Supreme Court or a High Court based on ability, standing at the Bar, and special knowledge.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 23 / Court Rules
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Right to pre-audience (priority in being heard) is governed by the rules of the court and the Advocates Act. Senior Advocates have pre-audience over other advocates. The Attorney General has pre-audience over all others under Section 16.
'Contempt of Court' is a subject in the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 77) of the Seventh Schedule. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on it. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 is the central legislation.
Justice P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when PIL was conceptualized and given institutional form. Along with Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, he pioneered the relaxation of locus standi and epistolary jurisdiction.
The SC issued directions for protection of women from sexual harassment at workplace in Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), laying down the Vishaka Guidelines that remained in force until the POSH Act, 2013 was enacted.
Hadith comprises the traditions, sayings, actions, and silent approvals of Prophet Muhammad as narrated by his companions. It is the second primary source of Islamic law after the Quran. Hadith guides Muslim personal law on matters not explicitly covered by the Quran.
The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was established under Section 83 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999. It heard appeals from the Registrar of Trade Marks and the Controller of Patents. Note: IPAB was abolished in 2021 with jurisdiction transferred to High Courts.
Fast track arbitration under Section 29B of the Arbitration Act (inserted by 2015 amendment) must be completed within 6 months from the date the tribunal enters reference. Parties can opt for fast track procedure by written agreement.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Order V
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
The form of summons in CPC is prescribed under Order V. The specific rule dealing with the format and contents of summons — who issues it, what it must contain, and how it is served — should be checked in the options.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 197
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 197 CrPC provides that no court shall take cognizance of an offence alleged to have been committed by a Judge or public servant while acting in discharge of official duty, except with prior sanction. This protects judges from frivolous prosecution.
Under CPC territorial jurisdiction rules (Section 20), a suit can be filed where the defendant resides or where the cause of action arises. When defendants are in different cities, the plaintiff can choose any court with jurisdiction over at least one defendant.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 25
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 25 CPC empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal, or proceeding from one High Court to another, or from one civil court in one state to another civil court in a different state. This ensures justice when local bias is apprehended.
Set-off under Order VIII Rule 6 CPC allows a defendant to claim a debt owed by the plaintiff as a counter-claim, reducing the plaintiff's claim. The set-off must be for an ascertained, legally recoverable sum not exceeding the court's pecuniary jurisdiction.
Res Ipsa Loquitur = 'the thing speaks for itself.' It shifts the burden of proof in negligence cases — when an accident wouldn't normally happen without negligence and the instrumentality was under defendant's exclusive control, negligence is presumed.
The doctrine of Common Employment was a defence that shielded employers from liability when one worker was injured by the negligence of a fellow worker. The landmark case establishing this defence was Priestley v. Fowler (1837). This defence has since been abolished in most jurisdictions.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 36
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
The Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council is conferred powers of a civil court under the Advocates Act. This enables it to summon witnesses, examine them on oath, compel production of documents, and enforce attendance — similar to court proceedings.
The leading case on 'Injuria Sine Damno' is Ashby v. White (1703). A voter was wrongfully prevented from voting — though no financial damage occurred, the court held that violation of a legal right itself is actionable. Legal injury without actual damage = still a valid cause of action.
The leading case on Strict Liability is Rylands v. Fletcher (1868). A reservoir on defendant's land burst and flooded plaintiff's mine. The court held: if you bring a dangerous thing on your land and it escapes, you are liable regardless of fault.
Section 66A of the IT Act was invalidated by the Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015). The section was struck down as unconstitutional for violating Article 19(1)(a) freedom of speech — its vague terms could criminalize legitimate online expression.
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The EIA Notification requires assessment before approving development projects that may significantly affect the environment.
When two or more persons fight in a public place and disturb public peace, it constitutes the offence of affray under Sections 159-160 IPC. Affray differs from riot (which requires 5+ persons with a common object).
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 153A
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Promotion of class hatred / enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc. is an offence under Section 153A IPC. It carries imprisonment up to 3 years and/or fine.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 299-300 / Reg v. Govinda
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
The distinction between murder (S.300) and culpable homicide not amounting to murder (S.299) was clarified by Melvill J in Reg. v. Govinda (1876). The case established that the degree of probability of death distinguishes the two — 'likely to cause death' vs 'sufficient in the ordinary course to cause death.'
Federal features include: written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, division of powers, independent judiciary, bicameralism. The option that is NOT a federal feature — like flexible Constitution, unitary executive, or single citizenship — is the answer.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 368 / Kesavananda Bharati
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Under Article 368, Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973). Basic structure includes: supremacy of Constitution, republican form, secular character, separation of powers, judicial review, federalism.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 25
Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.
Article 25 starts with 'Subject to public order, morality and health' — guaranteeing freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise, and propagate religion. The opening qualifier means religious freedom yields to public order, morality, and health.
Pick up Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and turn to Section 19
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act deals with maintenance of widowed daughter-in-law. A Hindu widow is entitled to be maintained by her father-in-law if she is unable to maintain herself from her own or husband's estate.
Pick up Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and turn to Section 30
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Succession Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act deals with testamentary succession — allowing any Hindu to dispose of their property by will or other testamentary disposition. This applies to self-acquired property and the testator's share in coparcenary property.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 313
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 313 CrPC provides for examination of the accused by the court. After prosecution evidence is complete, the court must question the accused to enable them to explain circumstances appearing against them. This is mandatory, not optional.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 167
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 167 CrPC allows detention of the accused: police custody up to 15 days, total judicial custody up to 60 days (for offences punishable up to 10 years) or 90 days (for offences punishable with 10+ years/death/life). Default bail arises if chargesheet not filed.
Valid adoption under HAMA requires: (1) person adopting has capacity (S.7-8), (2) person giving has capacity (S.9), (3) child is capable of being adopted (S.10), and (4) compliance with conditions of S.11 (same religion, unmarried child, not already adopted, age gaps).
Under Section 11(iii) HAMA, if a Hindu male adopts a female child, he must be at least 21 years older than the adopted daughter. This safeguard protects against potential exploitation. Similarly, a female adopting a male child must be 21 years older.
Pick up Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and turn to Section 21
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act defines 'dependants' entitled to maintenance. The question asks which relationship is NOT included — typically, distant relatives or in-laws beyond the specified categories are excluded.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 122
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no person married to another shall be compelled to disclose any communication made during marriage (marital privilege). This privilege survives the marriage — it applies even after divorce or death of spouse.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 24
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that a confession made under inducement, threat, or promise by a person in authority is irrelevant in criminal proceedings. The confession must be voluntary to be admissible.
Neighbouring rights (also called related rights) protect performers, producers of phonograms, and broadcasting organizations — those who help disseminate creative works but are not the original creators. These include performance rights, sound recording rights, and broadcast rights.
Adam Smith's four cannons of taxation are: (1) Cannon of Equality (proportionate to income), (2) Cannon of Certainty (clear and definite), (3) Cannon of Convenience (timing/method convenient for taxpayer), (4) Cannon of Economy (low collection cost). All four are universally accepted.
Income tax in India was first introduced by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to finance the military expenditure after the 1857 revolt. The current Income Tax Act was enacted in 1961.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 320
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 320 CrPC deals with compounding of offences — certain offences can be settled between the parties without trial. The section lists offences compoundable with and without court permission. Compounding effectively ends prosecution.
'Industrial establishment' under labour laws includes: factories, mines, plantations, workshops, and any establishment where manufacturing/production takes place. The comprehensive definition covers both organized and unorganized sectors.
Industrial relations cover: collective bargaining, labour legislation, industrial relations training, and trade unions. All four areas together form the complete scope of industrial relations as a discipline — covering legal, institutional, and practical dimensions.
'Suit of a civil nature' under Section 9 CPC means any suit in which the principal question relates to determination of a civil right. It includes disputes about property, contracts, status, and any right enforceable by civil courts — excluding purely religious matters.
Res Sub-Judice (S.10 CPC) means 'matter under judicial consideration.' When a previously instituted suit on the same matter between the same parties is pending in a competent court, the subsequent suit is stayed. This prevents parallel proceedings.
A suit to recover possession from a stranger (not a co-owner or licensee) based on title is governed by Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act read with CPC. The plaintiff must prove their title to the property and the defendant's wrongful possession.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 89
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Under Section 89 CPC, the recognized ADR methods are: arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (Lok Adalat), and mediation. Negotiation is NOT listed under S.89 — it's an informal process without institutional framework.
Under the Conciliation Rules (ACA 1996), the maximum number of conciliators allowed is three (or as agreed by parties). Section 63 provides for one conciliator unless parties agree to two or three. More than three is not permitted.
A settlement agreement in conciliation proceedings has the same status and effect as an arbitral award on agreed terms under Section 74 of the ACA. It is final, binding on parties, and enforceable as if it were a decree of court.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 118
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Under Section 118 of the Evidence Act, any person is competent to testify as a witness unless the court considers them prevented from understanding questions or giving rational answers by reason of tender years, extreme old age, disease, or similar cause.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 43
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 43 of the Evidence Act provides that judgments other than those specifically mentioned in Sections 40-42 are irrelevant unless their existence is a fact in issue or is relevant under some other provision. The question tests which judgment type is irrelevant.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 132
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act protects a witness from being excused from answering a question on the ground that the answer may incriminate them or expose them to penalty. However, no answer can be used against the witness in any proceeding except prosecution for giving false evidence.
Mandamus can be issued by both the Supreme Court (under Article 32) and High Courts (under Article 226). It commands a public official or body to perform a mandatory duty they have refused or neglected to perform.
Administrative Tribunals provision was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which inserted Articles 323A and 323B. Article 323A covers tribunals for service matters; Article 323B covers tribunals for other matters like taxation, land reforms, etc.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 154
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 154 CrPC mandates the officer in charge of a police station to record information about cognizable offences (FIR). If the SHO refuses, the informant can approach the SP under S.154(3) or the Magistrate under S.156(3).
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 164
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 164 CrPC provides that confessional statements can be recorded by a Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate. The Magistrate must satisfy themselves that the confession is voluntary, not obtained by inducement, threat, or promise.
Plea bargaining (Chapter XXIA CrPC) is NOT applicable for: offences punishable with death/life/imprisonment exceeding 7 years, offences against women or children under 14, and offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country.
When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act, or a legal act by illegal means, they commit the offence of criminal conspiracy under Section 120A IPC. The agreement itself is the offence — no overt act is required (unlike abetment which may require an act).
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 124A
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Provisions regarding sedition are given under Section 124A IPC, which punishes whoever brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites disaffection towards the Government established by law. The Kedar Nath case limited it to incitement to violence.
Under Order IX CPC, a suit may be dismissed when: (i) summons not served due to plaintiff's failure to pay costs, (ii) neither party appears, (iii) plaintiff alone fails to appear (while defendant appears). All three situations can lead to dismissal.
The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is the Vice-President of India under Article 89(1). The Vice-President presides over Rajya Sabha proceedings but is not a member of it and cannot vote except in case of a tie.
Right to property in India is a Constitutional Right under Article 300A (after the 44th Amendment removed it from fundamental rights). It is no longer a Fundamental Right but remains a constitutional right — deprivation requires authority of law.
Habeas Corpus means 'to produce the body.' This writ is used to secure the release of a person who has been illegally detained or imprisoned. The detaining authority must produce the detainee before the court and justify the detention.
Delegated legislation was declared constitutional in the case of In Re Delhi Laws Act (1951). The SC upheld the validity of delegated legislation provided essential legislative functions are not delegated and adequate safeguards/guidelines exist.
A prospectus that doesn't include complete particulars is called an 'abridged prospectus.' Under the Companies Act, an abridged prospectus is a shorter version containing salient features of the full prospectus, used for application forms.
When a company has no profit or inadequate profit in a year, it can still declare dividends out of accumulated profits (reserves) in accordance with the Companies (Declaration and Payment of Dividend) Rules. This ensures shareholder returns even in lean years.
'Industrial dispute' under S.2(k) of the ID Act means any dispute between employers and workers, or between workers and workers, connected with employment, non-employment, terms of employment, or conditions of labour. All three relationships may give rise to disputes.
Under Section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, persons competent to transfer include every person competent to contract AND entitled to transferable property. Minors, persons of unsound mind, and disqualified persons cannot transfer immovable property.
The doctrine of Lis Pendens (S.52 TPA — 'pending suit') was explained in Jayaram Mudaliar v. Ayyaswami. It provides that during pendency of a suit regarding immovable property, the property cannot be transferred to affect the rights of any party to the suit.
When X strikes A and A, provoked to violent rage, strikes X (who would otherwise not have struck), A's act is covered by Exception 1 to Section 300 (grave and sudden provocation). It reduces murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder — a partial defence.
Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 21 / Hussainara Khatoon
Look up the referenced provision in Constitutional Law to verify the answer.
Right to free legal aid was recognized as a fundamental right under Article 21 in Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979). Access to justice without financial barriers is essential for meaningful right to life and personal liberty.
The concept of PIL originated in the United States in the 1960s as part of the civil rights movement. American lawyer Charles Reich and others pioneered public interest law. In India, it was adapted and expanded by Justice Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer in the late 1970s.
A question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is a 'leading question' under Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act. Leading questions are generally prohibited in examination-in-chief but permitted in cross-examination.
Option of puberty is NOT a ground of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act — it is a concept from Muslim personal law where a marriage contracted during minority can be repudiated on attaining puberty. HMA grounds are in Section 13.
Pick up Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and turn to Section 26
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to verify the answer.
Section 26 HMA provides that during matrimonial proceedings, the court may pass interim custody orders regarding children. The paramount consideration is the welfare and best interest of the child — not the parents' rights.
Sulphate aerosols (from volcanic eruptions or industrial emissions) contribute to global cooling by reflecting sunlight back into space, reducing the amount of solar radiation reaching Earth's surface. This is a 'global dimming' effect.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 87
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
When A and B agree to fence for amusement, this implies consent to harm that may result from fair play. Under Section 87 IPC, acts done with consent for amusement, not intended to cause death or grievous hurt, are not offences. The consent covers inherent sporting risks.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 96-106
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
The right of private defence is provided under Sections 96-106 IPC. Section 96 states nothing is an offence done in exercise of private defence. Sections 97-99 define the scope, S.100 allows causing death for body defence, and S.103 for property defence.
Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 14
Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.
Under Section 14(1) of the Specific Relief Act (as amended 2018), specific performance cannot be enforced against a party who has obtained a contract by fraud, undue influence, or unfair advantage. Contracts tainted by these vitiating factors are excluded.
Under the Transfer of Property Act, all property — movable and immovable — is transferable unless specifically restricted. Section 6 lists properties that CANNOT be transferred: mere right of re-entry, easements apart from dominant heritage, interests restricted in personal enjoyment, etc.
Under the TPA, 'immovable property' does NOT include standing timber, growing crops, or grass — these are treated as movable property. Immovable property includes land, buildings, things attached to earth (like trees), and benefits arising from land.
State of UP v. Nawab Hussain (1977) relates to the doctrine of constructive res judicata — a matter that ought to have been raised in earlier proceedings but wasn't, is deemed to have been raised and decided. It bars raising it in subsequent proceedings.
Under Section 20 CPC, a suit can be filed where the defendant resides/works, or where the cause of action wholly or partly arises. If X (Pune) wants to sue Y (Mumbai), X can file in Mumbai (where Y resides) or wherever the cause of action arose.
For immovable property suits under Section 16 CPC, the suit must be filed in the court within whose jurisdiction the property is situated. If property in Bhopal is involved, the suit must be filed in Bhopal courts, regardless of where the parties reside.
Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Sections 60-64
Look up the referenced provision in Income Tax Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Sections 60-64 of the Income Tax Act deal with 'income of other persons' included in the assessee's total income (clubbing provisions). Income of spouse, minor child, or from assets transferred without adequate consideration may be clubbed.
Under Section 3 of the Income Tax Act, 'assessment year' means a period of 12 months commencing on the 1st day of April every year. For example, AY 2024-25 runs from April 1, 2024 to March 31, 2025.
Pick up Information Technology Act, 2000 and turn to Section 66A (struck down)
Look up the referenced provision in Information Technology Act, 2000 to verify the answer.
Section 66A of the IT (Amendment) Act, 2008 dealt with punishment for sending offensive messages through communication services. It was later struck down by the SC in Shreya Singhal (2015) as violating Article 19(1)(a).
Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may be called by the President under Article 108 when a deadlock occurs between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on a bill (other than money bills or constitutional amendment bills).
Under the Specific Relief Act, specific performance is NOT granted where the agreement is made with minors, as minors lack capacity to contract. The contract being void ab initio, there is nothing to specifically enforce.
Under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, a person entitled to possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the CPC. The remedy is through a civil suit for possession/recovery.
Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 39
Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.
Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act deals with mandatory injunctions — ordering a person to perform a specific act to prevent breach of an obligation. This differs from prohibitory injunction (preventing someone from doing something).
Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that a dumb (speech-impaired) witness may give evidence in writing or by signs in open court. Such evidence is deemed oral evidence and has the same evidentiary value as spoken testimony.
Under the Indian Evidence Act, certain matters are not relevant — the question tests identification of which fact is excluded from relevancy under the general provisions. Check each option against the relevancy sections (S.5-55).
Pick up Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and turn to Section 140
Look up the referenced provision in Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to verify the answer.
Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 deals with no-fault liability — the owner of a motor vehicle is liable to pay compensation for death or permanent disability arising from an accident, regardless of any wrongful act, neglect, or default.
Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, an 'industrial concern' means an undertaking engaged in manufacturing, mining, or similar industrial activities. Companies qualifying as industrial concerns get specific provisions for land acquisition.
Pick up Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and turn to Section 3(e)
Look up the referenced provision in Land Acquisition Act, 1894 to verify the answer.
Under Section 3(e) of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, 'Company' means a company as defined in Section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company. This defines which private entities can have land acquired on their behalf.