AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE XI — December 2017

AIBE XI — December 2017 — Complete Questions with Answers

100 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 December 2017
1. Section 154 under IT Act is:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A For filing return of Income
B For filing return with late fee
Rectification of mistakes
D Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Section 154

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Income Tax Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 154 of the Income Tax Act deals with rectification of mistakes — any error apparent from the record in an order by the Assessing Officer can be corrected. This is an administrative remedy before filing a formal appeal.

2. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2(14) of Income Tax Act:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Any stock in Trade
B Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
(a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Section 2(14)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Income Tax Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 2(14) of the IT Act defines 'capital asset' but specifically excludes: stock-in-trade, personal effects (except jewellery), agricultural land outside specified areas, and Special Bearer Bonds 1991. Both (a) and (b) are excluded.

3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Tribunal
Parties to decide by mutual understanding
C The petitioner
D The Defendant
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 22 of the Arbitration Act provides that parties are free to agree on the language of arbitral proceedings. In absence of agreement, the tribunal decides. All documents must be in or translated to the agreed language.

4. The Arbitral proceedings shall stand terminated:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A On making of the final award
B By an order of the arbitral tribunal
C When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 32 of the ACA, arbitral proceedings terminate by: (1) final award, or (2) tribunal's order (when claimant withdraws, parties agree, or continuation becomes unnecessary/impossible). Interim awards do NOT terminate proceedings.

5. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Order of District Collector
B Order of Income Tax Commissioner
Decree of a civil court
D (a) and (b)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Every award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court. It is final, binding on all parties, and no appeal lies against it. This finality and enforceability make Lok Adalat a powerful ADR mechanism.

6. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, Section 18-27 states:
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
B Receipt and Written Communications
C Extent of judicial intervention
D Awarding final decision
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and turn to Sections 18-27

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Sections 18-27 of the Arbitration Act deal with the conduct of arbitral proceedings — including equal treatment of parties, determination of rules of procedure, place of arbitration, language, statements of claim and defence, hearings, and expert appointment.

7. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The High Court
B The Court of civil judge
C The District Judge
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 80

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 80 CPC requires giving 2 months' notice before filing a suit against the Government or a public officer. This mandatory requirement applies to all persons — individuals, corporations, and other entities. The notice allows the government to settle before litigation.

8. Temporary Injunction can be granted:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Suo moto
Ex parte
C Hearing both parties
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Temporary injunctions under Order XXXIX CPC can be granted at any stage of the suit — from the institution of the suit until the final decree. The court considers: prima facie case, balance of convenience, and irreparable injury.

9. Right to Appeal is a
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Natural Right
B Inherent Right
Statutory Right
D Delegated Right
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Right to appeal is a statutory right — it is not a natural or inherent right. It exists only when conferred by statute. Unlike the right to sue (which is a common law right), the right to appeal must be specifically granted by legislation.

10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 2000
B 2001
2002
D 2004
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Indian Succession Act, 1925 has been amended multiple times. The last major amendment brought changes to testamentary and intestate succession provisions applicable to Christians and others governed by the Act.

11. Which is the correct statement:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
There can be a Will without a codicil
B There can be a codicil without a Will
C Every Will has a codicil
D A codicil proceeds a Will
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Hindu Succession Act, property of a Hindu male dying intestate devolves first on Class I heirs (widow, sons, daughters, mother), then Class II heirs, then agnates, then cognates. This hierarchy is the correct order of succession.

12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Two witnesses
Two or more witnesses
C Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Succession Act, 1925 and turn to Section 63

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Succession Act, 1925 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act requires a will to be attested by two or more witnesses who must each have seen the testator sign. They need not sign in each other's presence, but each must have seen the testator sign or affix their mark.

13. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammedan law refers to:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A gift made on the occasion of marriage
B The right of the husband to divorce his wife
C Attaining of puberty
None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

'Iddat' under Muslim law refers to the mandatory waiting period a Muslim woman must observe after dissolution of marriage (divorce or husband's death) before she can remarry. It ensures there is no pregnancy from the previous marriage.

14. Under the Christian Marriage Act, the marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
State Government
B The Central Government
C The Clergyman of the Church
D High Court judges
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872, the marriage registrar for a district is usually the Senior Marriage Registrar appointed by the State Government. The person authorized to solemnize and register Christian marriages varies by denomination.

15. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from:
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A French Administration
B British Administration
Swedish Administration
D German Administration
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The word 'Ombudsman' is derived from Swedish, meaning 'representative' or 'agent of the people.' The institution originated in Sweden (1809) as a parliamentary commissioner to investigate citizen complaints against government officials.

16. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by:
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Central Government or State Government
B Union Public Service Commission
C State Public Service Commission
D Supreme Court of India
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952 and turn to Section 3

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, the appropriate Government (Central or State) can appoint a Commission of Inquiry to investigate any matter of public importance. The Commission has powers of a civil court.

17. Information Technology Act was enacted in the year:
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1988
B 1996
2000
D 2004
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Information Technology Act was enacted in the year 2000. It received Presidential assent on 9th June 2000 and provides the legal framework for electronic governance, digital signatures, cybercrimes, and e-commerce in India.

18. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with the objective:
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A To provide legal sanction to all transaction for e-commerce
B To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the Government
C To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Government of India passed the IT Act 2000 with the objective of giving legal recognition to electronic commerce, facilitating electronic governance, preventing cybercrimes, and providing a legal framework for digital transactions.

19. Right to’ Personal liberty includes:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right against custodial violence
B Right of under trials to separate them from convicted persons
C Right against Public hanging
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Right to personal liberty under Article 21 includes: right to live with dignity, right to livelihood, right to privacy, right to travel abroad, right to sleep, right to shelter, right to health, and right against custodial violence. The SC has continuously expanded its scope.

20. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
President
B Prime Minister
C The Defence Minister
D Chief Marshal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India under Article 53. All three services (Army, Navy, Air Force) operate under the President's supreme command, exercised through the Council of Ministers.

21. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 62 years
B 60 years
C 58 years
65 years
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The retirement age of Supreme Court judges is 65 years under Article 124(2). High Court judges retire at 62 years (Article 217). This age difference reflects the hierarchy — SC judges serve longer given the apex court's importance.

22. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Concurrent list
B State list
C Union list
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Criminal Procedure Code is a subject in the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 1 of the Seventh Schedule). Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on it, with central law prevailing in case of conflict under Article 254.

23. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 2 (a) of Cr.P.C.
B Section 2 (b) of Cr.P.C.
C Section 2 (c) of Cr.P.C.
D Section 20 of IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 2(a)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

The definitions of 'bailable offence' and 'non-bailable offence' are given in Section 2(a) of CrPC. Bailable = bail as a matter of right. Non-bailable = bail at court's discretion (not that bail cannot be granted).

24. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C., Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Central Government
B High Court
C Supreme Court
State Government
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 21

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 21 CrPC, the State Government may appoint Special Executive Magistrates for particular areas or particular classes of cases. These magistrates exercise limited powers specified in their appointment orders.

25. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A U/s. 49, Cr.P.C.
B U/s. 50, Cr.P.C.
U/s. 51, Cr.P.C.
D U/s. 52, Cr.P.C.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person under Section 51 CrPC. The search must be conducted with due regard to decency. For female arrestees, the search must be conducted by another female with strict regard to decency.

26. The Special Court is:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Not subordinate to High Court
B Superior to High Court
C Supplement to High Court
D Equal to Supreme Court
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A Special Court is established by specific statutes to try particular categories of offences — like NDPS courts, NIA courts, POCSO courts, or courts under the SC/ST Attrition Act. They have specialized jurisdiction and often expedited procedures.

27. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by a magistrate:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
When the police decides not to investigate the case
B When the investigation is still going on
C Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 159 CrPC empowers a Magistrate to direct that police complete an investigation they have failed to complete, or to direct investigation by a different police officer. This is a supervisory power to ensure proper investigation.

28. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
For contradicting the witness
B For corroborating the witness
C Incorporating in the charge sheet
D Discharging the accused
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Statements recorded under Section 161 CrPC (during investigation) can be used in trial only to contradict the witness (S.145 Evidence Act) or for corroboration (S.157 Evidence Act). They cannot be used as substantive evidence directly.

29. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or Second class is provided:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
C Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 190

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Section 190 CrPC, a Magistrate of the First Class (and in certain cases, Second Class if specially empowered) can take cognizance of offences: (a) upon receiving a complaint, (b) upon a police report (chargesheet), or (c) upon information from any person or own knowledge.

30. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. P.C.
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A U/s.214
B U/s.215
U/s.216
D U/s.210
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Addition, alteration, or amendment of charges is provided under Section 216 CrPC. The court may alter or add to charges at any time before judgment is pronounced, giving the accused an opportunity to be heard and, if necessary, recalling witnesses.

31. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the Government?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 5
Section 6
C Section 7
D Section 8
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 41

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act prohibits filing injunction suits against the government in certain cases — specifically to restrain a person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a court not subordinate to the court granting injunction.

32. The Patent Act became a law in:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
1970
B 1975
C 1996
D 1966
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Indian Patents Act became law in 1970 (enacted in 1970, effective from 20th April 1972). It replaced the Indian Patents and Designs Act, 1911 and established the modern patent system in India.

33. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bank Tribunal
B Consumer Forum
Magistrate Court
D Sessions Court
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Cheque bouncing cases under Section 138 NI Act are tried by a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class (JMFC). They follow a summary trial procedure for expeditious disposal. The complaint must be filed within 30 days of the cause of action.

34. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Article 310
Article 315
C Article 320
D Article 325
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 315

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Article 315 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions — UPSC at the central level and State PSCs at the state level. They conduct examinations and recommend candidates for government appointments.

35. The case Krishna Gopal v. State of M.P . relates to:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Water pollution
B Air and water pollution
Noise and air pollution
D Water and noise pollution
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Krishna Gopal v. State of MP relates to professional misconduct of advocates. The SC discussed the standards expected of advocates and the consequences of failing to meet professional conduct requirements.

36. What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Impose a fine
B Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
C Suspension from practice
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 35 of the Advocates Act, if professional misconduct is established, the disciplinary committee can: (a) dismiss the complaint, (b) reprimand the advocate, (c) suspend the advocate, or (d) remove the advocate's name from the state roll.

37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A High Court
B Supreme Court
Bar Council of India
D Indian Law Commission
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

On being aggrieved by an order of the State Bar Council disciplinary committee, an appeal lies to the Bar Council of India under Section 37 of the Advocates Act. The appeal must be filed within 60 days of the order.

38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 29
Section 35
C Section 37
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 35

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 35 of the Advocates Act provides punishment for professional misconduct. The State Bar Council's disciplinary committee has the power to inquire into misconduct allegations and impose penalties.

39. Section 24 of Advocates Act deals with
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
B Qualification to become the Advocate General
C Qualification to become the Solicitor General of India
D (b) and (c)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 24

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 24 of the Advocates Act deals with persons who may be admitted as advocates on the state roll. It prescribes qualifications including: Indian citizen, age 21+, law degree from a recognized university, and payment of prescribed fee.

40. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Insurance certificate
B Medical examination
C Medical certificate
(b) and (c)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Workmen's Compensation Act (now Employees Compensation Act), factors helpful in deciding compensation include: the nature and extent of injury, monthly wages of the workman, age of the workman, and the relevant factor from Schedule IV.

41. Section 23 of the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Court . (b) A Tribunal (c) A quasi-judicial form (d) All of the above.
B A Tribunal
C A quasi-judicial form
D All of the above.
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Employees Compensation Act, 1923 and turn to Section 23

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Employees Compensation Act, 1923 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 23 of the Employees Compensation Act provides that the Commissioner has jurisdiction to deal with claims for compensation. The Commissioner is appointed by the State Government and acts as a quasi-judicial authority.

42. The objective of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Industrial peace and economic justice
B To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
C To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 aims to: secure industrial peace, prevent and settle industrial disputes, protect workers' interests, promote harmonious employer-employee relations, and provide machinery for dispute resolution.

43. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, provides the definition of:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Lock out
B Layoff
Strike
D Hartal
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and turn to Section 2(q)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 2(q) of the Industrial Disputes Act defines 'strike' as a cessation of work by a body of persons employed in any industry, acting in combination, or a concerted refusal or refusal under a common understanding to continue to work.

44. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from:
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1st March, 1955
B 1st March, 1986
C 1st March, 1994
1st March, 1894
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force from 1st March 1894. It remained the primary legislation for over 100 years until replaced by the LARR Act, 2013 which introduced fair compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement provisions.

45. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the J arable land’ means:
Land Acquisition Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Useful for residential purpose
B Useful for commercial purpose
Useful for cultivation
D Useful for industrial purpose
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Land Acquisition Act, 'arable land' means land fit for cultivation or farming. It includes both cultivated land and land capable of being cultivated. Waste land, marshy land, or rocky terrain may not qualify as arable.

46. Which one is not a fundamental right?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right to Freedom of Assembly
Right to Property
C Right to equality
D Right to freedom of speech and expression
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The right to property (Article 19(1)(f)) was removed from the list of fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment (1978). It remains a constitutional right under Article 300A but is no longer a fundamental right enforceable under Article 32.

47. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law (d) None of the above
B Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19(1)(A) but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the SC observed that the procedure established by law (Article 21) must be fair, just, and reasonable — not arbitrary or oppressive. This expanded Article 21 beyond the narrow A.K. Gopalan interpretation.

48. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
In the interest of general public
B In the interest of political leaders
C In the interest of women safety
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Reasonable restrictions on free movement (Article 19(1)(d)) can be imposed under Article 19(5) in the interests of the general public or for protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe. Restrictions must be reasonable, not arbitrary.

49. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of Constitution?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A company
B A corporation
Only citizens
D Citizens and aliens
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 19

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Article 19 rights (including freedom of speech, assembly, movement, residence, profession) are available ONLY to Indian citizens — not to foreigners, corporations, or artificial persons. Natural persons with Indian citizenship alone can claim these rights.

50. Clause (3) of Article 20(i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be;
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A An accused
B A witness
A witness against himself
D Hostile witness
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 20(3)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Article 20(3) of the Constitution provides protection against self-incrimination — no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. This applies to compelled testimony, not to voluntarily given statements or physical evidence.

51. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India is popularly known as
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Judges Transfer case
B Illegal Detention case
Mandal Commission case
D Constitutional case
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Indira Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) is popularly known as the Mandal Commission case. The SC upheld the 27% reservation for OBCs in government jobs but imposed a 50% ceiling on total reservations and introduced the 'creamy layer' exclusion concept.

52. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A N.K. Chanda v. State of Haryana
Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
C P. V . Narasimharao v. Union of India
D Railam Municipal Council v. Vardichand
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) benefitted slum dwellers. The SC held that right to livelihood is part of right to life under Article 21, and slum dwellers cannot be evicted without giving them alternative accommodation or rehabilitation.

53. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Article 226 of the Constitution and Article 32 of the Constitution
B U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
C (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Articles 32, 226

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitutional Law to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under Article 32 (before the Supreme Court, for fundamental rights violations) or Article 226 (before the High Court, for fundamental rights or any other purpose). Both provisions enable PIL jurisdiction.

54. Supreme Court in S.P . Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 149, decided:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Free Legal Aid
B Bonded labours
Judges Transfer
D Illegal detention
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1982), the SC expanded the concept of locus standi in PIL — any member of the public acting bona fide and having sufficient interest can maintain an action for judicial redress of public injury.

55. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
Public Trust doctrine
C Separation of power doctrine
D Public Interest doctrine
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

In M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (1997), the SC evolved the 'Public Trust Doctrine' — the state holds natural resources (rivers, forests, seashores) as trustee for the public and cannot transfer them to private parties for commercial exploitation.

56. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan case is related to:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Sexual harassment at workplace
B Protection of civil rights
C Uniform civil code
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan (1997) is related to sexual harassment of women at the workplace. The SC laid down the Vishakha Guidelines defining sexual harassment and prescribing prevention measures, which operated until POSH Act 2013.

57. Court’s power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under Section 20
Under Section 21
C (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Specific Relief Act, 1963 and turn to Section 21

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Specific Relief Act, 1963 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act provides the court's power to award compensation in addition to or in substitution of specific performance. The court can grant damages instead of ordering the actual performance of the contract.

58. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A By the opinion of Experts
B By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
C After police verification
(a) and (b)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Proving of handwriting is provided under Section 47 of the Indian Evidence Act. When the court needs to determine whether a document was written by a particular person, the opinion of persons acquainted with that person's handwriting is relevant.

59. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
B Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
C Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
(a) and (c)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 26

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 26 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that no confession made by any person whilst in the custody of a police officer shall be proved against such person, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

60. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Oral evidence
B Documentary evidence
C Electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 'evidence' means and includes: (1) oral evidence — all statements made before the court by witnesses, and (2) documentary evidence — all documents including electronic records produced for court inspection.

61. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section 271* of Cr.P.C.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
State Government
B Central Government
C Supreme Court of India
D Both (a) and (b)
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Article 348

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitution of India to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Article 348, the language of the High Court and Supreme Court is English until Parliament provides otherwise. The Governor may authorize use of Hindi or a state official language in High Court proceedings with President's consent.

62. A decree can be
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Final
B Preliminary
C Only Preliminary not final
Either preliminary or final
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

A decree can be: preliminary (determining rights but not completely disposing the suit), final (completely disposing the suit), or partly preliminary and partly final. This classification under S.2(2) CPC affects the appealability and execution of the decree.

63. Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Under Section 2(6) of CPC
B Under Section 2(7) of CPC
C Under Section 2(8) of CPC
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 2(6), Section 13

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Foreign judgment is defined in Section 2(6) CPC as the judgment of a foreign court. Section 13 lists six exceptions when a foreign judgment is NOT conclusive (lack of jurisdiction, not on merits, incorrect international law, fraud, breach of natural justice, breach of Indian law).

64. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is:
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 5
B 10
7
D 2
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is 7 members. For a Private Company, it is 2 members. For a One Person Company (OPC), it is 1 member. These are prescribed under Section 3 of the Companies Act, 2013.

65. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives:
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Certification of incorporation
B Letter of intent
C Occupation certificate
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A Private Company can commence business as soon as it receives the Certificate of Incorporation from the Registrar of Companies. Unlike public companies (which earlier needed a separate Trading Certificate), private companies don't need additional certificates.

66. Which of the following is not an essential of a Contract of Guarantee:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Concurrence of three parties
B Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
C Liabilities to be legally enforceable
Existence of only one contract
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

A contract of guarantee requires: (1) principal debtor, (2) creditor, (3) surety (guarantor), (4) a principal debt, and (5) consideration. The option that is NOT an essential — such as writing requirement for all guarantees — is the answer.

67. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 180 of the Act
B 181 of the Act
182 of the Act
D 183 of the Act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The term 'Agent' is defined under Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act — a person employed to do any act or represent another in dealings with third persons. The person who employs the agent is the 'principal.'

68. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business?
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Eight
Ten
C Twelve
D Sixteen
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The maximum number of partners in a banking business is 10 (under the Banking Regulation Act). For other businesses, the maximum is 50 for a private company and 200 for others. For partnership firms in non-banking business, it is 20.

69. A person who gives the guarantee is called:
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Bailee
B Creditor
C Debtor
Surety
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

A person who gives a guarantee is called a 'surety' or 'guarantor' under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act. The surety promises to perform the obligation of the principal debtor in case of default. The three parties are: creditor, principal debtor, surety.

70. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Lien
B Stoppage in transit
C Right of resale
To ascertain price
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

An unpaid seller has rights against goods: (1) lien (retain until paid), (2) stoppage in transit, (3) right of re-sale. Rights NOT against goods include: right to sue for price (which is against the buyer personally, not against the goods themselves).

71. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Injunctions
B Court’s discretion on specific performance
C Cancellation of instruments
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Sections 36-42 of the Specific Relief Act deal with preventive relief through injunctions — temporary injunctions, perpetual injunctions, mandatory injunctions, and the grounds on which injunctions can or cannot be granted.

72. Which of the following is not of civil nature:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Right to take out procession
B Right to Worship in a temple
Right to Caste and Religion
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Section 9 CPC, courts try all suits of a civil nature unless barred. Matters NOT of civil nature include: purely religious rites/ceremonies (without property element), caste disputes (without civil right), and purely moral obligations.

73. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The suit is liable to be dismissed
B The suit is liable to be stayed
C Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

When res judicata applies, the matter is conclusively decided between the parties. The subsequent suit on the same issue between the same parties is barred. The previous decision operates as an estoppel — the parties cannot re-litigate the decided issue.

74. Under Section 16, CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a Court whose local jurisdiction is:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Where the property is situated
B Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
C Both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 16

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 16 CPC, suits relating to immovable property must be filed in the court within whose territorial jurisdiction the property is situated. This is a mandatory rule — the plaintiff cannot choose a different court based on convenience.

75. Pleading means:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Plaint and written statement
B Plaint only
C Written statement
D Oral statement by the pleader
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under CPC, 'pleading' means the plaint or the written statement (Order VI Rule 1). Nothing else — not affidavits, not applications, not petitions. The plaint is the plaintiff's pleading; the written statement is the defendant's pleading.

76. On failure to file a written statement, under Order VIII, Rule 10 of CPC, the Court may:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A pass any other order
B Order for striking off the decree
C May pronounce the judgement at once
Any of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Order VIII Rule 10, if the defendant fails to file a written statement within the prescribed time, the court may pronounce judgment against them or make such other order as it thinks fit. The court has discretion — it can still permit late filing.

77. What is meant by Homicide?
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Suicide by human being not at home
B Suicide at home
Killing of a human being by another human being
D Killing of human being by animal
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Homicide means the killing of a human being by another human being. It can be lawful (judicial execution, self-defence) or unlawful (murder, culpable homicide). The IPC classifies unlawful homicide into murder (S.300) and culpable homicide not amounting to murder (S.299).

78. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under Section 274-276 of IPC
B Under Section 277-278 of IPC
Under section 272-273 of IPC
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 272-273

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence under Section 272-273 IPC. Section 272 deals with adulteration of food/drink intended for sale, and Section 273 deals with selling noxious food/drink. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 also covers this.

79. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
B Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
C Rigorous imprisonment for life term
Death sentence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The maximum punishment for waging war against the Government of India is death or imprisonment for life with fine, under Section 121 IPC. This is one of the most serious offences in the IPC.

80. Offences relating to elections are:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
C Are not covered by IPC
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Offences relating to elections are covered under Sections 171A-171I IPC. These include bribery (S.171B), undue influence (S.171C), personation at elections (S.171D), and making false statements in connection with elections (S.171G).

81. Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P .S. Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Wrongful restraint
B Wrongful confinement
Outrage the modesty of a woman
D Maintenance to the divorced women
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P.S. Gill is a famous case where the SC upheld the conviction of the then DGP of Punjab for outraging the modesty of a woman (IAS officer) at a dinner party. It established that no person is above the law regardless of position.

82. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Must be a Hindu only
B A Hindu or Jew
C May be Hindu or Christian
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, only males can be adopted if the adoptive parent already has no Hindu son or son's son. A person who is adopted must be: Hindu, under 15 years of age (unless custom permits otherwise), and unmarried.

83. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year:
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1956
B 1954
1955
D 1978
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before 1955 — the year the Hindu Marriage Act was enacted. Section 5(i) HMA mandates monogamy by requiring that neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage.

84. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter Kriti:
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
B The marriage is void
C The marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
D The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

A marriage between a man and his sister's daughter (niece) falls within the prohibited degrees of relationship under Section 3(g) HMA. Such a marriage is void under Section 11 unless the custom or usage governing both parties permits it.

85. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as:
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Includes a river but not a water course
B Includes a water course but not a river
C Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, 'stream' is defined broadly in Section 2(j) to include: rivers, watercourses (natural or artificial), inland water (natural or artificial), sub-terranean waters, and sea or tidal waters.

86. Section 2 (1) (ZB), of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, defines the meaning of:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Licence
Trade Mark
C Registration
D Cancellation
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Trade Marks Act, 1999 and turn to Section 2(1)(zb)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Trade Marks Act, 1999 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 defines 'trade mark' as a mark capable of being represented graphically and capable of distinguishing the goods/services of one person from those of others. It includes device, brand, heading, label, name, signature, word, letter, numeral, shape of goods, packaging, or combination of colours.

87. Outraging the modesty of a women is punishable under IPC:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 376 (a)
B Section 376 (b)
Section 354
D Section 498
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 354

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under Section 354 IPC. The offence involves assault or use of criminal force to any woman with intent to outrage her modesty. Punishment: imprisonment up to 2 years (enhanced after 2013 amendment).

88. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A House breaking
B Dishonest misappropriation of property
Forgery
D Forgery with cheating
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 463

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 463 IPC defines 'forgery' — making a false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage or injury, to support any claim, or to cause any person to part with property or enter into any agreement. The key is dishonest or fraudulent intent.

89. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Section 503 to 506
B Section 509 to 516
C Section 319 to 329
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 503, 506

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Criminal intimidation is defined under Section 503 IPC and punished under Section 506 IPC. It involves threatening another person with injury to their person, reputation, or property with intent to cause alarm or to compel them to do/omit an act.

90. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
All statements made before the Court by the witness
B All statement made before the police by the accused
C All statement of facts which a witness heard to say
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Sections 59-60

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Sections 59-60 of the Indian Evidence Act, the oral statement or evidence shall be direct — the witness must state what they personally saw, heard, or perceived. Hearsay evidence (what someone else told the witness) is generally inadmissible.

91. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A All Judges
B All Magistrates
C All Arbitrators
(a) and (b)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Indian Evidence Act, 'Court' includes all Judges and Magistrates and all persons, except arbitrators, legally authorized to take evidence. This broad definition encompasses all judicial and quasi-judicial forums.

92. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
B Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
Under Section 65B of Indian Evidence Act
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 65B

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, electronic records may be proved by producing a certificate identifying the electronic record, describing the manner in which it was produced, and certifying the authenticity of the output.

93. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
B Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
D Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 74

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Under the Evidence Act, 'public records' include official records of government activities, judicial proceedings, public registers, and records required to be maintained by law. Private letters, personal diaries, and unofficial notes are NOT public records.

94. Section 67 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides:
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Possession of driving licence while driving
B Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
C Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is detected
State Government’s power to control the road transport
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and turn to Section 67

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 67 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides that no person shall use a motor vehicle as a transport vehicle in any public place without a valid permit granted under the Act. This is the permit requirement for commercial vehicles.

95. The term ‘Tort’ is a
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A Latin Word
French Word
C English word
D Italian word
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The term 'Tort' is derived from the Latin word 'tortum' meaning 'twisted' or 'wrong.' In French, it means 'wrong.' In law, a tort is a civil wrong (other than breach of contract or trust) for which the remedy is an action for unliquidated damages.

96. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
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A A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
C A person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Vicarious liability in tort means liability of one person for the wrongful act of another — typically employer for employee's torts committed during the course of employment. The employer need not have done anything wrong themselves — liability is imposed by the employment relationship.

97. Under Section 2(I)(f) of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in ............ in relation to the goods:
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A Quality and Quantity
B Potency
C Purity or standard
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and turn to Section 2(1)(f)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Consumer Protection Act, 1986 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under Section 2(1)(f) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, 'defect' means any fault, imperfection, or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity, or standard of goods which is required to be maintained under any law or claimed by the trader.

98. Which of the following falls under the categories of Act of God:
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A Storm and cyclone
B Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
C Lightning and thunder
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Act of God (vis major) includes natural events beyond human control: earthquakes, floods, storms, volcanic eruptions, tsunamis. It is a complete defence in tort law because no human negligence is involved — the event is extraordinary and unpredictable.

99. Income Tax Act was enacted in
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A 1951
1961
C 1971
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Income Tax Act was enacted in 1961 and came into force on 1st April 1962. It replaced the Income Tax Act, 1922 and is the current governing legislation for income taxation in India.

100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24* of the Income Tax Act, as:
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A Profits and gains
B Dividend
C V oluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Section 2(24)

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Income Tax Act, 1961 to verify the answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

The question incorrectly references 'Section 24' — it should be Section 2(24). Income under S.2(24) includes: profits and gains, dividends, voluntary contributions to charitable trusts, perquisites, capital gains, winnings, and virtually any accretion to wealth.