AIBE Prep Previous Papers AIBE XVI — October 2021

AIBE XVI — October 2021 — Complete Questions with Answers

94 questions  ·  Correct answers  ·  Bare act strategy  ·  Step-by-step walkthroughs

Practice as Mock Test → 📅 October 2021
1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ____ petition in which a decree of restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between parties of marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of the decree.
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Does not permit any party to that
B Does not permit the party against whom the
Does permit any party to that
D Does permit any person related to either party to that
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 13(1A)(ii) HMA allows EITHER party to a marriage to seek divorce if conjugal rights haven't been restored for one year after a restitution decree. The key word is 'either party' — both the petitioner and respondent in the original restitution case can use this ground.

2. The offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are __ .
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Cognizable and bailable
B Non cognizable and non-bailable
Cognizable and non-bailable
D Non cognizable and bailable
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 15 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 explicitly makes all offences under the Act cognizable AND non-bailable. This ensures police can arrest without warrant and bail is not a matter of right — reflecting the seriousness of child marriage offences.

3. An arbitration proceeding is a:
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A Judicial proceeding
Quasi-judicial proceeding
C Administrative proceeding
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Arbitration is classified as a quasi-judicial proceeding — it involves a private tribunal making binding decisions on disputes, applying principles of natural justice, but it is not a court proceeding. The arbitrator acts like a judge but is appointed by parties, not by the state.

4. What is ad hoc arbitration?
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves, with rules created solely, for that specific case
B Parties make their own arrangement with respect to all aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
C The seal of arbitration, the language, and the scope and issues to be resolved by means of arbitration.
(A) (b) (c)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Ad hoc arbitration is where parties manage everything themselves without any institutional administration — they set their own rules, choose the seat, language, scope, and procedure. Contrast with institutional arbitration (administered by bodies like ICC, LCIA, SIAC) which provides established rules and administrative support.

5. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code define the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 2(4)
B Section 2(14)
C Section 2(6)
Section 2(12)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 2(12)

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Go to Section 2 — Definitions. 3. Check each sub-clause number in options. 4. Section 2(12) → 'mesne profits' definition. ✓

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 2(12) CPC defines 'mesne profits' as profits received by a person in wrongful possession of property from the rightful owner. It includes what the person actually received or could have received with ordinary diligence, minus necessary expenses for preservation.

6. How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Permissive presumptions or presumptions of facts
B Compelling presumptions or presumptions of law (rebuttable presumptions)
C Irrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive presumptions.
All of them
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Supreme Court classified presumptions into three types: (1) May presume (discretionary/rebuttable), (2) Shall presume (mandatory/rebuttable), and (3) Conclusive presumption (irrebuttable/cannot be challenged). This classification comes from the Evidence Act framework under Sections 4, 79-90, 113-114.

7. What is the leading decision in the case of Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Right of hearing
B Separation of powers
C Delegated legislation
D Rule of evidence
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) is the landmark case where the SC held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to live with dignity, and that the procedure depriving a person of life/liberty must be 'fair, just and reasonable' — not merely any procedure established by law.

8. Advocate’s act 1961 came into force on:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
19th May, 1961
B 19th April, 1961
C 1st May, 1961
D 19th January, 1961
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Advocates Act, 1961 came into force on 19th June 1961. It consolidated the law relating to legal practitioners, established Bar Councils at state and national levels, and created a unified framework for the legal profession across India, replacing multiple pre-existing enactments.

9. A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the course of employment. His family members may claim compensation under:-
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A The Motor Vehicle Act
B The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
C Both (a) and (b)
Either under (a) or under (b)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

When a railway servant is killed in a bus accident during the course of employment (traveling for duty), compensation is payable. The question tests which law applies — the Employees Compensation Act (formerly Workmen's Compensation Act) or the Railway Claims Tribunal Act, depending on the accident circumstances.

10. “Casting Couch” in Bollywood, the Indian film industry, is an example of-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A sexual assault
sexual harassment
C both (a) and (b)
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

'Casting Couch' describes demanding sexual favors in exchange for professional advancement — this constitutes sexual harassment. Under the POSH Act, 2013 and criminal law, such behavior is punishable. It's a clear example of quid pro quo sexual harassment in the workplace.

11. According to section 2 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 the term motor cab means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 5 passengers or including the driver
B 6 passengers or including the driver
C 5 passengers or excluding the driver
6 passengers or excluding the driver
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and turn to Section 2(28)

2
Navigate

1. Pick up MV Act, 1988. 2. Go to Section 2 — Definitions. 3. Find the definition of 'motor vehicle' — mechanically propelled, adapted for roads, excludes fixed rail vehicles.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 2(28) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines 'motor vehicle' to include any mechanically propelled vehicle adapted for use upon roads, whether its power of propulsion is transmitted thereto from an external or internal source. It excludes vehicles running on fixed rails.

12. The National Commission of Consumer Protection is composed of-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 7 members;
5 members;
C 8 members;
D .6 members;
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under the Consumer Protection Act consists of a President (who is or has been a Supreme Court Judge) and not less than 4 members, one of whom shall be a woman. This composition ensures judicial expertise and gender representation.

13. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with” amount of maintenance”?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 21
B Section 22
Section 23
D Section 24
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 and turn to Check options

2
Navigate

1. Pick up HAMA 1956. 2. Check each section number in the options. 3. Find the one dealing with the specific adoption provision asked.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 provisions on adoption require specific conditions — the section in question likely deals with who can take in adoption, valid adoption requirements, or the effects of adoption. Check each section number against the Act.

14. In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all made an attempt to look into the question regarding the extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other Hygienic conditions-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh
B M.C Mehta v. Union of India
C V Lakshmipathy v. State of Karnataka
D FK. Hussain v. Union of India
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This question tests recall of the first PIL-related SC judgment on a specific legal principle. Key PIL landmarks: Hussainara Khatoon (speedy trial), S.P. Gupta (judges transfer/locus standi), Bandhua Mukti Morcha (bonded labour), M.C. Mehta (environment). The answer depends on the specific principle described.

15. Basel Convention is associated with one of the following-
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A International Trade in Endangered species of wild Fauna & flora
B Climate change
C Protection of Ozone layer
The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous waste and their disposal.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) deals with international movement of hazardous waste. It aims to reduce hazardous waste generation, restrict transboundary movement, and ensure environmentally sound management.

16. Cyber crime is in nature
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A Tangible
Intangible
C Of mental Violence
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Cyber crime is both civil and criminal in nature. Some cyber offences attract criminal penalties (hacking, identity theft under IT Act), while others give rise to civil liability (data breaches causing financial loss, defamation online). The IT Act 2000 provides for both criminal prosecution and civil remedies.

17. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “Foreign Court” means
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A court situated outside India
A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
C A court situated in India, applying foreign law
D All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 2(5) CPC defines 'Foreign Court' as a court situate outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government. Indian courts in foreign territories (like consular courts) are NOT foreign courts under this definition.

18. Misuse of mechanism of PILs means-
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A filing PILs for protection of private interest
B filing PILs for oblique motive
C filing PILs only for publicity
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Misuse of PIL includes filing petitions for personal gain, political vendetta, commercial rivalry, publicity seeking, or to settle personal scores under the guise of public interest. The SC has repeatedly warned against such abuse and imposed costs on frivolous PIL petitioners.

19. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A It is the non-observance of the: procedural norms by the rule-making authority
B It may make the rule ultra vires due to non- observance of rule-making] authority and hence become void
C It means the lacuna in the procedure 0 law
(a) and (b)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Procedural ultra-vires means an authority has the substantive power to act but has exercised it without following the prescribed procedure. The action may be within the authority's jurisdiction but is invalidated because mandatory procedural requirements were not complied with.

20. The ground of “error of law apparent or the face of the record” is connected will which of the writ?
Administrative Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Quo-warranto
B Mandamus
C Habeas Corpus
Certiorari
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

'Error of law apparent on the face of the record' is a ground for issuing a writ of certiorari. The High Court or Supreme Court can quash a decision if there is a manifest legal error visible from the record itself, without needing to examine external evidence.

21. Under Civil Procedure Code find the incorrect match:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 5 Revenue Court
B Section 7 Provincial Small Causes Court
Section 9 Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts
D Section 8 Presidency Small Cause Courts
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Various

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Check each provision-subject pair given in the options. 3. Verify against actual CPC text. 4. The mismatched pair = answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

This tests identification of incorrect CPC matches between provisions and their subjects. CPC has many numbered provisions — the question requires checking each match against the actual Act to find the wrong pairing.

22. What is the Period of Limitation for expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific Relief Act, 1963:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 months
B 10 months
12 months
D 18 months
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The limitation period for expeditious disposal of suits varies by type. The question tests the specific time limit under the Limitation Act, 1963 or CPC amendments regarding speedy trial mandates. Commercial courts have stricter timelines than regular civil courts.

23. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Not exceeding seven years
B Exceeding seven years
C For life
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 29 CrPC (now BNSS S.24), a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except a sentence of death or imprisonment for life or imprisonment exceeding 7 years. This is lower than a Sessions Judge (any sentence) but higher than a First Class Magistrate (up to 3 years).

24. Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital is dealt under-
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 215 of IPC
Section 216 of IPC
C Section 217 of IPC
D Section 218 of IPC
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 212, 216

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the correct answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody or whose apprehension has been ordered is an offence under the IPC. The specific section depends on the type of offence — Sections 212, 216, 216A IPC deal with different aspects of harbouring offenders.

25. The maxim’ actus not tacit reum nisi mens sit rea’ means-
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
There can be no crime without a guilty mind
B Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
C Crime is the result of guilty mind
D In crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

'Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means 'the act itself does not make a person guilty unless the mind is also guilty.' This is the foundational criminal law principle requiring both a guilty act (actus reus) and guilty mind (mens rea) for criminal liability.

26. Law laid down under section 73 of Indian Contract Act,. 1872 is related to which of the following cases:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Hothester v. De-la-tur
B Rabinson v. Devison
Hedley v. Baxendale
D Dikinson v. Dads
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 73

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Indian Contract Act. 2. Go to Section 73. 3. Read: compensation for breach = loss naturally arising + loss parties knew would result.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act deals with compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract. The aggrieved party can claim compensation for loss or damage naturally arising from the breach, or which the parties knew at the time of contract would likely result from the breach.

27. Recovery of Specific Immovable Property may be obtained by C.P.C within what period-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Within 7 months
Within 6 months
C Within 8 months
D Within 10 months
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act read with CPC provides for recovery of specific immovable property. The plaintiff can sue for possession, and the court can order delivery of the property through its execution machinery under CPC.

28. Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement under the LARR Act?
Environmental Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A LARR Authority
B Minister of Environment and Forests
C Central Government
State Government
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the LARR Act 2013, the Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement is appointed by the appropriate Government (Central or State). This officer oversees the rehabilitation and resettlement process for persons displaced by land acquisition.

29. The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Six months
B Two years
One year
D Three months
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 109

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CrPC. 2. Go to Section 109. 3. Check the bond period/amount prescribed.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 109 CrPC deals with security for good behaviour from suspected persons. The bond period for security under this section is limited to a specific duration. Check the section to verify the maximum period mentioned in the options.

30. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C 1973 was removed in:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1973
B 1989
2001
D 2007
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 125 (pre/post 2001 amendment)

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CrPC. 2. Go to Section 125. 3. Note: the Rs. 500 ceiling was removed by CrPC Amendment Act, 2001.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

The old Rs. 500 monthly maintenance limit under S.125 CrPC was removed by the 2001 amendment, which gave Magistrates discretion to fix maintenance amounts based on the parties' income and circumstances. The ceiling removal modernized the provision.

31. The term ‘WIPO” stands for:
Intellectual Property Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A World Investment Policy Organization
World Intellectual Property Organization
C Wildlife Investigation and Policing Organization
D World Institute for Prevention of Organized Crime
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

WIPO stands for 'World Intellectual Property Organization' — a UN specialized agency based in Geneva that administers international IP treaties including the Paris Convention, Berne Convention, and PCT. It has 193 member states.

32. Health and education cess is applicable to-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
All assesses
B All assesses except company
C Individual/HUF
D Company only
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Health and Education Cess at 4% is applicable to the total income tax and surcharge payable. It replaced the earlier 3% cess (2% education + 1% higher education). The cess funds health and education initiatives and applies to all taxpayers regardless of income level.

34. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Directory
Mandatory
C None-Mandatory
D Discretionary
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 10

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Go to Section 10 — Stay of suit. 3. Read: later suit stayed if earlier suit pending between same parties on same matter.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 10 CPC embodies the principle of 'stay of suit' — where a previously instituted suit is pending between the same parties on the same matter in a court competent to grant the relief, the later suit is stayed. This prevents parallel proceedings and conflicting decisions.

35. Constructive res-judicata is contained in which of the following?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Explanation III to Section 11
Explanation IV to Section 11
C Explanation VI to Section 11
D Explanation VIII to Section 11
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 11, Explanation IV

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Go to Section 11 — Res Judicata. 3. Read Explanation IV: constructive res judicata — matters that could have been raised are deemed raised.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Constructive res judicata is contained in Explanation IV to Section 11 CPC. It provides that any matter which might and ought to have been raised as a ground of attack or defense in the former suit shall be deemed to have been directly in issue — even if not actually raised.

36. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by Supreme Court in:
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A NALSA v. Union of India
B Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi
C Shabnam Hasmi v. Union of India
Suresh Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question tests recall of a specific Delhi High Court pronouncement on constitutional matters. Key Delhi HC constitutional decisions include cases on Article 21 rights, reservation policies, and governance issues specific to Delhi's unique administrative structure.

37. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996-
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 7
Section 8
C Section 9
D Section 10
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 89

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Go to Section 89 — Settlement of disputes outside the Court. 3. Verify: this is the ADR reference provision.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 89 CPC provides for reference to arbitration and other ADR mechanisms. When elements of a settlement appear acceptable, the court can refer parties to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (Lok Adalat), or mediation. This is the bridge between litigation and ADR.

38. Under the head subsequent conduct, which of the following type of conduct would be material?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Change of life
B Evasion of justice
C Fear, trembling
All of them
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Subsequent conduct evidence refers to behavior of parties after a transaction that may be relevant to interpreting the transaction. Under the Evidence Act, this type of evidence falls under specific relevancy provisions — the question tests which category applies.

39. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of that Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Clause (1) (E)
B Clause (1) (0)
C Clause (1) (B)
D Clause (1) (C)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Freedom of residence under Article 19(1)(e) guarantees every citizen the right to reside and settle in any part of India. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed under Article 19(5) in the interests of the general public or for the protection of Scheduled Tribes.

40. Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
17
B 16
C 15
D 18
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 17

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Evidence Act. 2. Go to Section 17 — 'Admission defined.' 3. Read the definition.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act defines admissions. An admission is a statement, oral or documentary, which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, made by any of the persons and under the circumstances specified in the Act.

41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
State of Karnataka v. Yarappa Reddi
B Mohammed Khalid v. State of West Bengal
C Baburam v. State of U.P.
D State of Rajasthan v. Om prakash
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

This tests case law recall about a specific SC holding on legal principles. Identify the case from the options and match it to the described principle — whether it's about fundamental rights, procedural fairness, or statutory interpretation.

42. If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Fifteen days
Fourteen days
C Twenty days
D Thirty days
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CPC, if a party who obtained leave to amend their pleading fails to amend within the time granted by the court, the order for leave is treated as having been vacated. The party loses the right to amend and must proceed with the original pleading.

43. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given under section of the Advocate’s Act, 1961-
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 30
B 32
35
D None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with punishment of advocates for professional misconduct. The disciplinary committee of the State Bar Council can reprimand, suspend, or remove an advocate from the roll for proven misconduct.

44. Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging professional negligence?
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 303A
304A
C 302
D 305
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 304A

2
Navigate

1. Pick up IPC. 2. Check each section in options. 3. Section 304A → 'Causing death by negligence.' ✓ This is the professional negligence section.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Professional negligence (medical negligence, legal malpractice etc.) is often invoked under Section 304A IPC, which deals with causing death by negligence. The section doesn't require criminal intent — rash or negligent conduct causing death suffices.

46. When Perpetual Injunction may be granted-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Where the defendant is trustee of the Property for the plaintiff.
B Where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage.
C Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief.
All of the above.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Perpetual injunction may be granted under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 when the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff's right to enjoyment of property, when the defendant has breached an obligation, or when the defendant threatens to act in breach of an obligation.

47. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law and ensure that the public justice system is enabled to function at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional ethic by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even a minor violation misconduct militates against the fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said in-
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Hikmant Ali Khan v. Ishwar Prasad Arya, 19973 SCC 131
O.P. Sharma v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86
C L.D. Jaikwal v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405
D Shamsher Singh Bedi v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (1996)7 SCC 99.
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

An advocate's paramount duty is to uphold the rule of law and ensure the administration of justice. This obligation supersedes the duty to the client — an advocate cannot assist in violating the law even at the client's instruction.

48. Section 8 of the Companies Act; 2013 contains provision relating to-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A incorporation of company
formation of companies with charitable objects, etc.
C effect of registration
D Effect of memorandum and articles.
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Companies Act, 2013 and turn to Section 8

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Companies Act. 2. Go to Section 8 — Formation of companies with charitable objects. 3. Read the provision.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with formation of companies with charitable objects (Section 8 companies). These are not-for-profit companies formed for promoting commerce, art, science, education, sports, social welfare, research, or other charitable purposes.

49. The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to the registrar within a period of incorporation-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
30 days
B 60 days
C 90 days
D 120 days
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The verification of registered office address must be filed with the Registrar of Companies within 30 days of incorporation. This ensures that the company has a physical address where official communications can be sent and records can be maintained.

50. Cyber law deals with-
Cyber Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A All activities concerning the internet
B IPR
C E-commerce
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Cyber law encompasses legal issues related to the internet, digital communication, and information technology. It deals with cybercrimes, e-commerce, electronic governance, data protection, digital signatures, and online intellectual property disputes.

51. The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by:
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The Employees Compensation Act, 1923
B The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
C Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
D The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Compensation to railway employees by the railway administration is governed by the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 (formerly Workmen's Compensation Act). The Act provides for fixed statutory compensation for workplace injuries, disability, and death.

52. The minimum amount of compensation payable under Employees Compensation Act, 1923 in case of total permanent disablement of a railway servant due to accident is Rs-
Labour & Industrial Laws ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Rs. 80,000/-
B Rs.90,000/-
Rs.1,40,000/-
D Rs. 1,20,000/-
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The minimum compensation payable under the Employees Compensation Act varies by type of injury. For death, it is 50% of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor. For permanent total disability, it is 60% of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor.

53. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo-
Company Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Copy rights
Trade mark
C Patent
D Industrial designs
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

A company wanting to protect its logo exclusively should register it as a trademark under the Trade Marks Act, 1999. Trademark registration gives the owner exclusive right to use the mark and prevents others from using identical or deceptively similar marks.

54. The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is-
ADR & Arbitration Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 20
Section 21
C Section 22
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and turn to Check options

2
Navigate

1. Pick up ACA 1996. 2. Check each section number in options. 3. Match to the described provision.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act has specific sections dealing with different aspects. The question asks which section covers a particular topic — check each option against the Act to find the correct provision.

55. Under Criminal procedure Code 1973, who shall record the information of rape being given by a rape victim?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Officer in-charge of the police station
B Deputy Superintendent of police
C Officer not below the rank of Sub- Inspector
Woman police officer or any Woman officer
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under CrPC, the officer in charge of a police station (Station House Officer/SHO) shall record the information relating to cognizable offences. Section 154 mandates that every information relating to a cognizable offence shall be reduced to writing by the SHO.

56. Under the provision of the code of criminal procedure, 1973-
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Summons can be oral
B Summons cannot be served on corporate entities
Summons are either for appearance or for producing a document/thing
D Summons can be served to servants in case the person on whose name summons are made cannot be found
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This tests a specific CrPC provision — likely about powers of different courts, bail provisions, or procedural requirements. Check the statement against the actual CrPC text to identify the correct or incorrect proposition.

57. Every person who is a member or a defence service or hold any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the______
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Prime Minister
President
C Council of Minister
D Both (A) and (B)
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Article 33 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate fundamental rights of armed forces members, paramilitary forces, intelligence agencies, and persons employed in maintaining public order. This ensures military discipline is not undermined by individual rights claims.

58. Which of the following statement/ statements is/are false for the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955? I. It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to be Hindu III. A person converted who converted to another religion needs to follow local ritual/ custom for converting back to Hinduism
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A I only
B I and II
III only
D I and III
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

This question tests identification of false statements about a legal concept. Read each statement carefully and compare against the actual legal position to identify the incorrect one. The false statement will contain a subtle error in law.

59. Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section. ............ of Civil Procedure Code.
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 91
89
C 51
D 151
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 89 CPC provides for settlement of disputes outside the court through ADR mechanisms — arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (Lok Adalat), or mediation. The court can refer parties to any of these methods when settlement elements appear acceptable.

60. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on-
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6th October, 1860
B 1st March, 1974
C 15th March, 1872
1st September, 1872
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 came into force on 1st September 1872. It was enacted during British rule to consolidate the law of evidence, replacing diverse local practices with a uniform evidence framework applicable throughout British India.

61. According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution: I. There shall be a public service commission for the Union and a Public Service commission for each state. II. The public service commission for the Union, if requested to do by the governor of a state may, with the approval of the president, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the state. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Only I
B Only II
I and II
D None of them
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Article 315 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions — the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the central level and State Public Service Commissions at the state level. Joint PSCs for two or more states are also provided for.

62. Any private person may arrest any person who:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Commits non-bailable offence in his presence
B Commits non-bailable offence and cognizable offence in his presence
C Commits compoundable. offence in his presence
Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 43 CrPC allows any private person to arrest someone who commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence in their presence, or any proclaimed offender. The arrested person must be handed over to police without unnecessary delay.

63. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 years
B 10 years
C 12 years
Until executed or cancelled
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

A warrant of arrest remains in force until it is cancelled by the court that issued it, or until it is executed. Unlike summons, warrants do not expire on a specific date — they remain valid indefinitely until recalled or served.

64. Rate of additional Depreciation will be under section 32- Indian Income Tax Act-
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 10 %
20 %
C 15 %
D 30 %
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Section 32(1)(iia)

2
Navigate

1. Pick up IT Act. 2. Go to Section 32(1)(iia). 3. Read: additional depreciation = 20% of actual cost of new machinery.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Additional depreciation under Section 32(1)(iia) of the Income Tax Act allows manufacturing companies to claim 20% additional depreciation on new plant and machinery (over and above normal depreciation). This incentivizes capital investment in manufacturing.

65. Amount of deduction under section 24 of The Income Tax Act from annual value is-
Taxation Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 1/2 of Annual Value
B 1/3 of Annual Value
3/10 of Annual Value
D 17/10 of Annual Value
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Section 24

2
Navigate

1. Pick up IT Act. 2. Go to Section 24 — Deductions from income from house property. 3. Read: standard deduction of 30% of NAV + interest on borrowed capital.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

Section 24 of the Income Tax Act allows deduction of 30% of net annual value as a standard deduction from income from house property, plus interest on borrowed capital (subject to limits). For self-occupied property, the interest deduction is capped at Rs. 2 lakh.

66. The test of reasonableness is not wholly____test and its contours are Fairley indicated by constitution.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Subjective
B Objective
C Descriptive
D Subjective
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The test of reasonableness is not wholly subjective — it has objective elements too. Courts assess restrictions on fundamental rights using both subjective purpose (legislative intent) and objective application (proportionality, necessity). The contours are determined by judicial interpretation on a case-by-case basis.

67. The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India is left to __ under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A President
B Council of ministers
C House of people
Parliament
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Under the Constitution, the power to enact citizenship laws resides with Parliament under Article 11 read with Entry 17 of List I (Union List). Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955 under this power. States have no power over citizenship legislation.

68. Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is decided in:
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Tweedle v. Atkinson
B Dutton v. Poole
Pournami all Mills v. State of Kerala
D Kedar Nath v. Gauri Mohamad
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Promissory estoppel against government agencies was decided in Union of India v. Anglo Afghan Agencies (or Motilal Padampat v. State of UP, depending on options). The SC held that the government cannot resile from a promise if a party has acted on it to their detriment.

69. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the Indian Contract Act?
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Section 73
B Section 70
C Section 2(d)
Section 56
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 56

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Indian Contract Act. 2. Section 56 → 'Agreement to do impossible act' / Frustration of contract.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act deals with frustration of contract — an agreement to do an impossible act is void, and a contract becomes void when performance becomes impossible or unlawful after formation due to an event the promisor couldn't prevent.

71. Admission can be broadly categorised into:
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Judicial
B Extra-judicial
C Either A and B
Both A and B
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Admissions under the Evidence Act can be broadly categorized into: (1) Judicial admissions (formal admissions made in pleadings or in court), and (2) Extra-judicial admissions (informal admissions made outside court proceedings). Some also add a third category: admissions by conduct.

72. Section 66, Indian Evidence Act lays down:
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A A notice must be given before secondary evidence can be received under section 65(a), Indian Evidence Act
B Notice to produce a document must be in writing
C Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
All of them
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 66

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the correct answer.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

This question was withdrawn by BCI. Section 66 of the Evidence Act provides rules about giving notice before producing secondary evidence under Section 65(a). Notice must be given to the party holding the original document before secondary evidence can be admitted.

73. Maxim “Res Ipsa Loquitur” means:-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
The thing speaks for itself
B Where there is right there is remedy
C Where there is remedy there is right
D Where there is no fault there is no remedy
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

'Res Ipsa Loquitur' means 'the thing speaks for itself.' In tort law, it creates a presumption of negligence when: (1) the accident wouldn't normally occur without negligence, (2) the instrumentality was under defendant's control, and (3) plaintiff didn't contribute to the injury.

74. The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Justice Dalveer Bhandari
B Justice Altamas Kabir
Justice J.S, Verma
D Justice A.S. Anand
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The Justice Verma Committee (2013) was constituted after the Nirbhaya gang-rape case and led to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013. The committee recommended broader definition of sexual offences, harsher punishments, and new offences like stalking, voyeurism, and acid attacks.

75. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code, non-cognizable offences are:
CrPC & Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Public wrongs
Private wrongs
C Both public and private wrongs
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under CrPC, non-cognizable offences are those where police cannot arrest without a warrant or investigate without Magistrate's permission. The scheme requires the complainant to approach the Magistrate who then directs investigation — this protects against police overreach in minor matters.

77. The “Objective Resolution” adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947 was drafted by-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Jawaharlal Nehru
B Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D B.N. Rao
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The 'Objective Resolution' was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December 1946. It laid down the ideals and objectives of the Constitution — sovereignty of the people, justice, equality, and freedom — and later became the foundation for the Preamble.

78. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of-
Constitutional Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Indira Gandhi
B Charan Singh
C Rajiv Gandhi
Morarji Desai
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. It was moved to Article 300A as a constitutional right (not fundamental right). The Morarji Desai government passed this amendment.

79. When the accused states, “I will produce the share which I gave received in such and such robbery” which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act? I. An admission that there was a robbery II. An admission that the accused took part in it III. An admission that he got part of the property IV . A statement as to where the property is
Evidence Act & Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
I, II and III
B III and IV
C II, III and IV
D All of them
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Section 17-21

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the correct answer.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

When the accused makes a statement like 'I will produce the share which I gave,' this constitutes an admission by the accused. Under the Evidence Act, admissions by parties are relevant and admissible, though they are not conclusive proof.

80. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Donoghue v. Stevenson
B Homes v. Ashford
Rylands v. Fletcher
D None of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The rule of strict liability was established in Rylands v. Fletcher (1868). The principle: a person who brings and keeps a dangerous thing on their land is liable for all damage if it escapes, regardless of fault or negligence. No intent or carelessness needs to be proved.

81. The Rule of Last opportunity was Laid decision in-
Tort, MV Act & Consumer Protection ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Davies v. Mann
B State of A.P. v. Ranganna
C Nugent v. Smith
D Kalawativ. State of HP
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The 'Rule of Last Opportunity' (also called 'last clear chance doctrine') was laid down in Davies v. Mann (1842). It provides that despite the plaintiff's contributory negligence, the defendant is liable if they had the last clear opportunity to avoid the accident and failed to do so.

82. In which of the following cases was it held that “the rights conferred under section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no difference”?
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Surenderabal v. Suppiah
B Mukesh teli v. Bharti Teli
Sesi Ammal v, Thaiyu Ammal
D Laxmi v. Krishna
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Constitution of India and turn to Case Law

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Constitutional Law to verify the correct answer.

✅ Why (C) is Correct

This tests recall of the specific case where the SC held that constitutional rights conferred on citizens cannot be taken away. Key cases: Golak Nath (FRs can't be amended), Kesavananda (basic structure can't be altered), Minerva Mills (judicial review is basic structure).

83. A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV , Rule 1 in-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A Single copy
Duplicate
C Triplicate
D No fixed rule
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under Order IV Rule 1 CPC, a plaint must be presented in court along with the prescribed court fee. The suit is deemed instituted on the date the plaint is presented to the proper officer. Proper presentation with correct fee is essential for the suit to be validly instituted.

85. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person concerned, under section 82 CPC, execution, shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of-
Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
3 months from the date of decree
B 6 months from the date of the decree
C 1 year from the date of the decree
D 2 years from the date of decree
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 82

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CPC. 2. Go to Section 82 — Execution of decree against government.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

When a decree is passed against the Union of India or a State Government for payment of money, execution follows special rules. The government typically gets time to arrange payment through budgetary allocation, and property of the sovereign cannot be attached.

86. On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation?
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
18th May, 1955
B 17th June, 1955
C 22nd May, 1955
D 18th June, 1955
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on 18th May 1955. It reformed Hindu marriage law, introducing provisions for monogamy, grounds for divorce, judicial separation, and registration of marriages, replacing diverse customary practices.

87. Which of the following properties will section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern? I. Tarwad II. Tavazhi III. Kutumba IV . Kavaru V. Illom
Family Law ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A I, III, and V
B II, IV and V
C I and II
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and turn to Section 30

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Hindu Succession Act. 2. Go to Section 30 — Testamentary succession. 3. Check which properties can be disposed of by will.

✅ Why (D) is Correct

Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 allows a Hindu to dispose of their property by will or other testamentary disposition. This section applies to both self-acquired and undivided coparcenary interest. The question tests which properties fall under this provision.

88. The maximum limit of the members of the state bar council:
Professional Ethics & BCI Rules ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 15
B 20
25
D None
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

The State Bar Council membership is limited to a maximum number prescribed by the Advocates Act. This ensures that the council remains manageable while representing the state's advocates adequately through elected and nominated members.

89. Specific Relief Act, 1963 contains-
Contract, Specific Relief, Property & NI Act ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A 6 chapters and 40 Sections
B 7 chapters and 42 Sections
C 8 chapters and 43 Sections
8 chapters and 44 Sections
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The Specific Relief Act, 1963 contains provisions for specific performance of contracts, rectification/rescission/cancellation of instruments, declaratory decrees, and injunctions (both temporary and perpetual). The question tests the total number of sections or chapters.

90. The phrase “file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests” means-
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A filing PIL for protection of only public interest
B filing PIL for protection of both public and private interest
C filing PIL for protection or only private interest
filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually seeking protection of private interest
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

The SC has criticized PILs filed 'ostensibly in public interest but in fact to serve personal or political agendas.' Such misuse undermines the PIL mechanism designed to protect disadvantaged groups. The court has imposed exemplary costs on frivolous PIL petitioners.

91. Filing of frivolous PILs results in-
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
A increasing backlog of cases
B wastage of resources
C lesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
All of the above
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (D) is Correct

Filing frivolous PILs results in: dismissal with costs, imposition of exemplary/punitive costs, potential contempt proceedings, and waste of judicial time. The SC in Dattaraj Nathuji Thaware and other cases imposed heavy costs to deter PIL abuse.

92. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X. Is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane?
IPC & Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) ✓ Solved 📖 Study →
Z has not committed any offence as per section 98 of IPC and same right of private defence to X if Z is mad
B As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and no right of private defence to X
C Z has committed an offence for not using his mind
D None above
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 84

2
Navigate

1. Pick up IPC. 2. Go to Section 84 — Act of a person of unsound mind. 3. Read: person of unsound mind incapable of knowing nature/wrongfulness = not an offence.

✅ Why (A) is Correct

Under Section 84 IPC, nothing is an offence done by a person of unsound mind who, at the time of the act, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act or that it is wrong or contrary to law. Z acting under madness may not be guilty if the conditions of Section 84 are met.

93. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
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A Article 21
B Article 21A
Article 22
D Article 22A
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is provided under Article 22 of the Constitution. It guarantees: right to be informed of grounds of arrest, right to consult a lawyer, right to be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours, and protection against preventive detention beyond specified periods.

94. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has been inserted in the Constitution by ___
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44th Amendment Act
B 42nd Amendment Act
C 40th Amendment Act
D 51st Amendment Act
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (A) is Correct

Article 300A was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 as a constitutional right (replacing the former fundamental right to property). It states: 'No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.' It is now a legal right, not a fundamental right.

95. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law (Shari at) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed amended by section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?
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A Section 4
Section 5
C Section 6
D Section 7
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 and turn to Check options

2
Navigate

1. Pick up Shariat Act, 1937. 2. Check each section in options to find the one matching the described provision.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 applies Islamic personal law to Muslims in matters of marriage, succession, inheritance, and other personal matters. The specific section tested in the question deals with the scope of application of Shariat law.

97. Which of the following cases can be cured under section 465 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973?
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A Entertaining of complaint without complying with section 195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case
C The examination of witness in absence of the accused
D Non Compliance with 235(2)
Exam Strategy — Section in Options Act is given; section is hidden in options — check each option in the index.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 465

2
Navigate

1. Pick up CrPC. 2. Go to Section 465. 3. Read: irregularities curable unless failure of justice resulted.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

Section 465 CrPC deals with curing irregularities in proceedings. It provides that proceedings cannot be set aside merely because of an error, omission, or irregularity, unless a failure of justice has actually occurred. This saves proceedings from technical objections.

98. Which of the following statements hold true for de novo trials?
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A Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground far calling de novo trials
A de novo trial should be the last resort
C the court originally trying the case can order de novo trial
D None of these
Exam Strategy — Act + Section Given Act and Section are both given — go directly to that section in the bare act.
📖 How to Find This in the Bare Act
1
Open the Bare Act

Pick up Procedural Law and turn to General Concept

2
Navigate

Look up the referenced provision in Procedural Law to verify the correct answer.

✅ Why (B) is Correct

A de novo trial means a completely fresh trial — the case is heard again from the beginning as if no previous trial had occurred. All evidence must be re-recorded, arguments re-heard, and a new judgment delivered. This differs from remand, where only specific issues are retried.

99. In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for public-private partnership projects, consent of how many affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?
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A 60%
70%
C 80%
D 90%
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (B) is Correct

Under the LARR Act 2013, when the Central Government acquires land for public purposes, specific procedures must be followed including Social Impact Assessment, prior consent of affected families (for private companies — 80%, for PPP projects — 70%), and fair compensation at market value or higher.

100. A company which is not a domestic company will pay income tax at the rate of:-
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A 25 %
B 30%
40%
D 20%
Exam Strategy — Knowledge-Based Knowledge-based — requires subject understanding; no single lookup.
✅ Why (C) is Correct

A company that is not a domestic company (i.e., a foreign company) pays income tax at the rate of 40% on its income in India, plus applicable surcharge and cess. Domestic companies pay lower rates (25% or 30% depending on turnover). This rate differential reflects the policy of encouraging domestic incorporation.