99 questions · Correct answers · Bare act strategy · Step-by-step walkthroughs
Certiorari lies against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies to quash orders made without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of natural justice. It does NOT lie against purely administrative or legislative actions — only decisions that affect rights judicially.
In Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989), the SC held that every doctor — government or private — has an obligation to provide immediate medical aid to injured persons without waiting for procedural formalities like police clearance or medico-legal paperwork.
The SC directed making the Chief Justice of India's office subject to the Right to Information Act in Central Public Information Officer v. Subhash Chandra Agarwal (2019). This was a significant transparency milestone for the judiciary.
Income tax in India was first introduced by Sir James Wilson in 1860 to meet the financial crisis caused by the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny. The first Income Tax Act was enacted in 1860, making India one of the early adopters of direct taxation in Asia.
Justice J.C. Shah's observation about fundamental rights being not absolute and subject to reasonable restrictions reflects the constitutional position under Article 19(2)-(6). Every fundamental right under Article 19(1) has corresponding reasonable restriction grounds.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 461
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 461 CrPC deals with irregularities which vitiate (make void) proceedings. If a Magistrate acts without jurisdiction on specific matters listed in S.461 (like attachment under S.83), the proceedings are completely void — not merely irregular.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 2(2)
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
A decree under CPC requires: (1) formal expression of adjudication, (2) determination of rights of parties, (3) conclusive determination of the suit. The option that doesn't fit these essential elements is the answer.
Under the Trade Marks Act, using a mark identical or deceptively similar to a registered trademark, using it as a trade or business name, or applying it to goods/packaging constitutes infringement. The option that does NOT fit the statutory definition is the answer.
Section 307 IPC — a life convict who attempts murder is punishable with death. This is one of the few provisions where a person already serving life imprisonment faces the possibility of capital punishment for a subsequent offence committed while in prison.
Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939, a Muslim wife can seek divorce on grounds including: husband's whereabouts unknown (4 years), failure to maintain (2 years), imprisonment (7 years), failure of marital obligations, impotence, insanity, leprosy, and cruelty.
The concept of Curative Petition was introduced in Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002). It is a last resort remedy after dismissal of a review petition — filed to cure gross miscarriage of justice. It requires certification by a senior advocate.
Right to free legal aid was recognized as a fundamental right under Article 21 in Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979). The SC held that access to justice includes free legal services for those who cannot afford a lawyer.
This tests identification of a false statement among legal propositions. Read each option as a standalone legal statement — three will be correct law, one will contain a subtle error in statutory reference, legal principle, or factual assertion.
Kashmira Singh v. State of MP is a leading case on the evidentiary value of dying declarations. The SC held that a dying declaration can be the sole basis for conviction if it inspires confidence and is found to be voluntary, truthful, and consistent.
Digital signatures use asymmetric cryptography — a pair of keys (private key for signing, public key for verification). Section 3 of the IT Act provides for authentication by digital signature using this asymmetric crypto system.
Pick up Information Technology Act, 2000 and turn to Section 66F
Look up the referenced provision in Information Technology Act, 2000 to verify the answer.
Section 66F IT Act deals with cyber terrorism — using computer resources to threaten India's unity, integrity, security, or sovereignty, or to strike terror in people. The punishment is imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life.
Pick up Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and turn to Section 2(j)
Look up the referenced provision in Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to verify the answer.
Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act defines 'industry' broadly to include any systematic activity carried on by cooperation between employer and employees for production, supply, or distribution of goods/services. The definition was expanded by Bangalore Water Supply case.
'A' placing armed men at exits to prevent Z from leaving constitutes wrongful confinement under S.340-342 IPC. The essence is preventing a person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits against their will.
Inciting a dog to spring upon someone without consent constitutes criminal force. If the dog bites, it's assault causing hurt. Under IPC, using an animal as an instrument of force makes the person directing the animal liable, not the animal.
Intentionally driving cattle onto another's field to damage crops constitutes the offence of mischief under S.425-426 IPC. The person who directs the cattle is liable — the act was intentional and aimed at causing wrongful damage to property.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Section 35
Look up the referenced provision in Advocates Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Section 35 of the Advocates Act provides for punishment of advocates for professional misconduct. The disciplinary committee can reprimand, suspend (up to specified period), or remove the advocate's name from the state roll.
Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India disciplinary committee has the power to punish for contempt of the disciplinary committee itself. For contempt of court, only the concerned court (HC/SC) has jurisdiction under the Contempt of Courts Act.
A vested interest arises when on the transfer of property, the transferee gets an immediate right to present or future enjoyment. A contingent interest depends on an uncertain event. The option that describes a contingent rather than vested interest is the answer.
Copyright law protects original literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works, cinematograph films, and sound recordings. The wrong statement about copyright will likely involve: duration (author's life + 60 years), moral rights, fair use, or registration requirements.
The question tests a specific SC case about Indian Penal Code applicability. Major cases: Kedar Nath (sedition), Navtej Johar (S.377), Joseph Shine (adultery S.497). Identify from the options.
Pick up Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and turn to Check options
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Succession Act, 1956 to verify the answer.
The Hindu Succession Act deals with intestate succession among Hindus. The specific provision asked about relates to devolution of property — check each section number in the options against the HSA text.
Under Article 226, High Courts have the power to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights AND for any other purpose. This is broader than Article 32 (SC — only for fundamental rights). The question tests which article empowers which court.
The 'Right to Privacy' was declared a fundamental right under Article 21 in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) by a unanimous 9-judge bench. This overruled the earlier M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh decisions.
Whether a bill is a Money Bill or not is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and their decision is final. The Speaker's certification cannot be questioned in any court — this is a constitutional protection under Article 110(3).
Decisions under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection) are taken by the Speaker/Chairman of the House. The SC in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) upheld this but added that the Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review.
Muhammad Allahbad Khan v. Muhammad Ismail Khan is a landmark case in Muslim law relating to gift (hiba), particularly the requirement of delivery of possession. The case established important principles about valid gifts in Islamic law.
The SC in 2017 decided several landmark cases — right to privacy (Puttaswamy), triple talaq (Shayara Bano), right to die with dignity. Identify the specific 2017 case from the options.
A foreign award under the Arbitration Act is an award made in a country that is party to the New York Convention (1958) or the Geneva Convention (1927). Part II of the ACA deals with enforcement of foreign awards.
Pick up Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and turn to Section 5(iv), Section 11
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to verify the answer.
Under Hindu Marriage Act, marriage within prohibited degrees of relationship is void under Section 11 (unless custom permits it under S.5(iv)). If a man marries a girl within prohibited relationship without custom exception, the marriage is void ab initio.
Pick up Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and turn to Section 26
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to verify the answer.
Section 26 of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with custody of children during and after matrimonial proceedings. The court's paramount consideration is the welfare and best interest of the child.
The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 came into force on 1st March 1894. It was the primary legislation for land acquisition for over a century until replaced by the LARR Act, 2013.
The Court of Session can pass any sentence authorized by law, including death and life imprisonment. This is the highest sentencing power among criminal courts — Sessions Judge has unlimited sentencing authority (subject to confirmation for death sentences by HC).
Under Section 13 CPC, a foreign judgment is not conclusive if: (a) not by a competent court, (b) not on merits, (c) based on incorrect view of international law, (d) obtained by fraud, (e) violates natural justice, (f) founded on breach of Indian law.
Under CPC, a reference can be made during the pendency of a suit when the court needs an opinion on a question of fact. Section 113 allows reference to the High Court on questions of law arising in a pending suit.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Order XLVII Rule 1
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Under Order XLVII Rule 1 CPC, review of judgment can be sought when: (1) discovery of new and important evidence, (2) mistake or error apparent on the face of the record, (3) any other sufficient reason. All three grounds together provide comprehensive review jurisdiction.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 115
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Section 115 CPC (revision) is not available against: interlocutory orders that don't finally dispose of the rights of parties, consent orders, orders where appeal is available, or orders of courts not subordinate to the revising court.
Pick up Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and turn to Section 138
Look up the referenced provision in Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to verify the answer.
Liability under Section 138 NI Act (dishonour of cheque) is on the drawer of the cheque. It's a criminal liability requiring: (1) cheque drawn for legally enforceable debt/liability, (2) dishonoured for insufficient funds, (3) demand notice issued, (4) failure to pay within 15 days.
The Land Acquisition Act, 1894 aimed to: (1) enable government to acquire private land for public purposes, (2) provide compensation to landowners, (3) establish a procedure for acquisition, and (4) balance development needs with property rights.
The doctrine of indoor management (Turquand's Rule) deals with internal management and affairs of a company. Outsiders dealing in good faith with a company are entitled to assume that internal procedures have been properly followed.
The Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted in 1991 to provide immediate relief to persons affected by accidents involving handling of hazardous substances. It was a legislative response to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy experience.
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The EIA notification (first issued 1994, updated 2006) requires assessment of environmental consequences before approving large development projects.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 154
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 154 CrPC mandates the officer in charge of a police station to record information relating to cognizable offences in the FIR. The question tests the specific section number for this mandatory recording.
Under CrPC, the Court of Session is presided over by a Sessions Judge and tries the most serious criminal cases including those punishable with death or life imprisonment. It is the highest trial court in the criminal hierarchy.
PIL relaxes the traditional rule of locus standi — that only the aggrieved person can file a case. In PIL, any public-spirited citizen can approach the court on behalf of those who cannot access justice themselves.
Among the landmark PIL cases (S.P. Gupta, Hussainara Khatoon, Bandhua Mukti Morcha, M.C. Mehta), identify which is NOT a PIL case from the options. Some listed cases may be ordinary litigation, not PIL.
Under the Advocates Act, a Senior Advocate is designated by the SC or HC. They cannot file a vakalat, appear without being briefed by another advocate, or directly accept instructions from clients. They can only appear when briefed by an advocate-on-record or other advocate.
Pick up Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and turn to Section 130
Look up the referenced provision in Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to verify the answer.
The effect of 'not negotiable' crossing is mentioned under Section 130 of the NI Act. A cheque crossed 'not negotiable' can still be transferred, but the transferee cannot get better title than the transferor — it destroys the negotiability advantage.
Pick up Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 and turn to Section 16
Look up the referenced provision in Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 to verify the answer.
Section 16 of the Negotiable Instruments Act defines an 'endorsement' — when the maker or holder of a negotiable instrument signs on the back or face, or on a slip annexed, for the purpose of negotiation. The endorser transfers the instrument to the endorsee.
The Factories Act, 1948 is the primary legislation ensuring safety, health, and welfare of factory workers. It prescribes standards for ventilation, lighting, sanitation, working hours, leave, employment of women/young persons, and dangerous manufacturing processes.
The SC held that teachers are not 'workmen' under the Industrial Disputes Act in several cases. Teaching is a professional activity, not manual, clerical, or supervisory work as defined in S.2(s) of the ID Act.
Pick up Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and turn to Section 2(cc)
Look up the referenced provision in Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to verify the answer.
Section 2(cc) of the Industrial Disputes Act defines 'closure' as the permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof. This is distinct from lock-out (temporary closing) and retrenchment (termination for economic reasons).
Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act creates a presumption that if a person has not been heard of for 7 years by those who would naturally have heard of them, the burden of proving they are alive shifts. The court MAY presume death.
Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act provides that a witness unable to speak (dumb witness) may give evidence in any other manner — through writing, signs, or gestures — in open court. Such evidence is deemed oral evidence.
Under Section 74 of the Evidence Act, public documents include: documents forming acts of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and public officers. Private correspondence and personal writings are NOT public documents.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 154
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 154 CrPC mandates the SHO to record information about cognizable offences as FIR. If the SHO refuses, the aggrieved person can send written complaint to the SP (S.154(3)) or approach the Magistrate (S.156(3)).
Under Section 83 CrPC, the court can order attachment of property of a proclaimed offender (person who has absconded and failed to appear despite proclamation under S.82). The property remains attached until the person appears or the court orders otherwise.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 482
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 482 CrPC preserves the inherent powers of the High Court — to make orders necessary to give effect to any order under CrPC, prevent abuse of process, or secure ends of justice. This power is exclusively vested in the High Court, not subordinate courts.
Residuary powers of legislation in India rest with Parliament under Article 248 read with Entry 97 of List I (Union List). Unlike the US (where residuary powers are with states), India follows the Canadian model giving residuary powers to the centre.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Section 53
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Section 53 IPC lists five types of punishment: (1) Death, (2) Imprisonment for life, (3) Imprisonment (rigorous or simple), (4) Forfeiture of property, (5) Fine. The question tests the exact number or scope.
McNaughten Rules (1843) form the basis of the law of insanity as a defence in criminal law. They establish that a person is presumed sane unless proved that at the time of the act, they didn't know the nature of the act or that it was wrong.
Rule of Law means: (1) supremacy of law over arbitrary power, (2) equality before law — no one is above the law, (3) the Constitution is the result of rights of individuals as defined by courts. This concept was propounded by A.V. Dicey.
Quo Warranto means 'by what authority?' Its purpose is to prevent a person from holding a public office to which they have no legal right. Any person (not just the affected party) can seek this writ — the petitioner need not show personal interest.
Under the Evidence Act, character evidence is generally not relevant in civil cases (S.52) and has limited relevance in criminal cases (S.53-55). In civil cases, character is not relevant unless the character of a person is itself a fact in issue.
Primary evidence means the document itself produced for court inspection (S.62 Evidence Act). The original document is the best evidence. Copies, oral accounts of contents, and certified copies are secondary evidence (S.63).
India borrowed the concept of Directive Principles of State Policy from the Irish Constitution (Constitution of Ireland, 1937). The Irish DPSPs themselves were influenced by the Spanish Constitution. India also borrowed: emergency provisions from Germany, fundamental rights from USA.
Articles 32 and 226 provide for enforcement of fundamental rights through writs. Article 32 gives the SC power (only for FRs), while Article 226 gives HCs broader power (FRs + any other purpose). Article 32 is itself a fundamental right.
Pick up Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and turn to Sections 121-132 (Privilege)
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Under the Evidence Act, certain facts are not relevant in both civil and criminal cases — such as matters privileged under Sections 121-132, facts excluded by estoppel, or facts about which public policy forbids disclosure.
BATNA stands for 'Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement' — a concept from negotiation theory by Roger Fisher and William Ury. It represents the most advantageous alternative a party can pursue if negotiations fail.
Pick up Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and turn to Section 9
Look up the referenced provision in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to verify the answer.
Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act deals with interim measures by the court — a party can apply to the court for interim relief (attachment, injunction, preservation of evidence) before or during arbitral proceedings.
'Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium' means 'where there is a right, there is a remedy.' This foundational principle of tort law ensures that for every legal wrong, the law provides a legal remedy. It originated from Ashby v. White (1703).
'Injuria Sine Damnum' literally means 'injury without damage' or 'legal wrong without actual loss.' Even if no tangible damage occurred, if a legal right is violated, the injured person can sue. Example: Ashby v. White (voting right denied).
Pick up Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and turn to Chapter X (Sections 165-176)
Look up the referenced provision in Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to verify the answer.
Claims Tribunals for motor accident compensation are established under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. The specific provision about constitution and jurisdiction of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal (MACT) is in Chapter X.
Pick up Advocates Act, 1961 and turn to Chapter II, Part VI BCI Rules
Look up the referenced provision in BCI Rules / Advocates Act to verify the answer.
An advocate's duties to the court include: not misleading the court, maintaining decorum, not communicating privately with the judge, appearing in proper dress, and not withdrawing from case without permission. The option that is NOT a duty to court (but rather a duty to client or profession) is the answer.
The BCI Rules Chapter II Part VI prescribe standards of professional conduct. The rules cover duties to court, clients, opposing counsel, and the profession. The question tests which specific rule applies to a described situation.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 167
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 167 CrPC deals with the procedure when investigation cannot be completed within 24 hours — the Magistrate may authorize detention (police custody up to 15 days, judicial custody up to 60/90 days). Default bail arises if charge-sheet not filed within these periods.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 438
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 438 CrPC deals with anticipatory bail — direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest. The applicant must show reasonable apprehension of arrest in a non-bailable offence. Not available for certain serious offences like rape.
Pick up Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and turn to Section 390
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 to verify the answer.
Section 390 CrPC (now provisions under BNSS) deals with cancellation of bonds and bail bonds. When conditions of bail are violated, the court can cancel the bail and issue a warrant for the accused's arrest.
Pick up Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and turn to Sections 13(1), 13(2)
Look up the referenced provision in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to verify the answer.
Section 13(1) HMA provides grounds for divorce available to both spouses (cruelty, desertion, conversion, unsound mind, leprosy, venereal disease, renunciation, presumed dead). Section 13(2) provides additional grounds available only to the wife. Both incorporate the fault theory.
Under HAMA, a dependent can enforce maintenance rights against a transferee of the estate only when the transfer is gratuitous (without consideration) and the transferee had notice of the maintenance obligation at the time of transfer.
A PIL cannot be filed before a Tribunal (like NCLAT, ITAT, CAT) — only before High Courts (Article 226) and the Supreme Court (Article 32). Tribunals do not have writ jurisdiction or PIL jurisdiction.
Mesne profits (S.2(12) CPC) are profits which the person in wrongful possession of property actually received or might with ordinary diligence have received, together with interest, but excluding profits due to improvements by the wrongful possessor.
Under S.2(11) CPC, a 'legal representative' means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person. The option that does NOT qualify as legal representative (like a stranger with no legal connection to the estate) is the answer.
Pick up Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 and turn to Various
Look up the referenced provision in Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 is the primary legislation against dowry. It defines dowry, prohibits its giving and taking, prescribes penalties, and provides for Dowry Prohibition Officers. IPC Sections 304B and 498A also address dowry-related offences.
Pick up Indian Penal Code, 1860 and turn to Sections 315-318
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Penal Code, 1860 to verify the answer.
Section 315 IPC (or the section dealing with foeticide) is designed to curb infanticide — causing death of a quick unborn child or exposing/abandoning children. These provisions protect children from being killed at or shortly after birth.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Order XXXII
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Order XXXII CPC is specially enacted to protect minors and persons of unsound mind in litigation. It requires appointment of a 'next friend' for plaintiffs and a 'guardian ad litem' for defendants who are minors.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Order VI
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Order VI CPC lays down general rules governing pleadings — including what a plaint and written statement must contain, amendment of pleadings, striking out unnecessary pleadings, and requirements for verification.
Pick up Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and turn to Section 100
Look up the referenced provision in Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to verify the answer.
Second appeal under Section 100 CPC lies only to the High Court, and only on a substantial question of law. No second appeal lies from a consent decree, decree of a Small Causes Court, or where the original decree was confirmed on first appeal without variation.
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 came into effect on 24th December 1986. It was later replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 which came into effect on 20th July 2020 with enhanced consumer rights and new concepts like e-commerce regulation.
Pick up Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and turn to Check options
Look up the referenced provision in Consumer Protection Act, 2019 to verify the answer.
The Consumer Protection Act contains provisions for product liability, unfair trade practices, rights of consumers, and establishment of consumer forums at three levels. The specific section depends on the options given.
The principle 'No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law' is enshrined in Article 265 of the Constitution. This prevents arbitrary taxation and ensures every tax has a statutory basis approved by the legislature.
Pick up Income Tax Act, 1961 and turn to Sections 60-64
Look up the referenced provision in Income Tax Act, 1961 to verify the answer.
Under Section 60-64 of the Income Tax Act, income of other persons (like spouse, minor child) is included in the assessee's income in certain situations — this is called 'clubbing of income.' The specific section depends on the relationship.
This tests identification of a correctly stated legal proposition about sentencing or criminal procedure. Check each statement against the actual statutory text to find the accurately stated option.
Pick up Indian Contract Act, 1872 and turn to Section 30
Look up the referenced provision in Indian Contract Act, 1872 to verify the answer.
Wagering agreements are void under S.30 of the Indian Contract Act, but collateral transactions to wagering are valid and enforceable. If A borrows money from B to bet, B can recover the loan even though A used it for wagering. The collateral agreement (loan) stands independently.
The term 'holder' under the Negotiable Instruments Act includes: the payee (person to whom payment is made), the bearer (possessor of bearer instrument), and the endorsee (person to whom instrument is endorsed). All three are included in the definition.