123 questions from 16 papers
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 provides that an accomplice is a competent witness:
Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person is a competent witness if he or she-
Which of the following Judgement is irrelevant under Section 43 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872-
Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a witness has been given right to refresh his memory
A question suggesting the answers which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-
A “dumb witness” given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as:
The Kashmira Singh v. State of MP is a leading case on:
If it is proved that a man has not been heard of for __ by those who would naturally have heard of him if he were alive, the presumption under section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act is that he is dead:
A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as-
Which of the following is not a public document?
Under the Indian Evidence Act, the character of a person is not relevant in which of the following cases:
Which one of the following is primary evidence?
Which of the following fact is not relevant in civil and criminal cases under section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
Which of the following is not a duty of an Advocate to Court:
A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and there by induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the salt: on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of the them. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act.
Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with:
Section 113 A of the Evidence Act deals with:
Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under:
The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act:
So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relate distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under:
When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. This is under ______of the Evidence Act.
How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?
Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?
The Indian Evidence Act came into force on-
Admission can be broadly categorised into:
When the accused states, “I will produce the share which I gave received in such and such robbery” which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act? I. An admission that there was a robbery II. An admission that the accused took part in it III. An admission that he got part of the property IV . A statement as to where the property is
The doctrine of ‘Res Gestae’ has been discussed in which Section of the Evidence Act?
When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
Judicial Evidence means
Which of the following is not a ‘document’ according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
“Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths” is given under which Section?
Which of the following is not ‘Secondary evidence’ as per Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A leading question may be asked in
Extra Judicial Confession means
The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 deals with
A is accused of murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that the confession to police-officer shall not be proved against him?
Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?
Which is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of documents?
Which is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
In which case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence?
Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?
Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in:
In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this evidence?
Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as:
Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when are leading questions permissible in court proceedings?
A refused to answer questions put to a witness under section 161 of Cr.P.C is an offence under-
The investigating officer during the investigation records the statements of a witness under-
A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C in writing during investigation and is signed by the person making the statement is hit by:
Which of the following is relevant fact under Evidence Act, 1872?
Test of competency of witness is:
Which one is exception as rule of hearsay evidence?
In every plaint, under section 26 of CPC facts should be proved by:
Which are the provisions under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 that deals with relevancy of opinion of experts?
The contents of documents may be proved either by-
Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself, if seen, it is-
“The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof.” It was so held in which case-
The statements of dead persons are relevant under which provision
“Witnesses are the eyes and ears of Justice”. Whose statement is this
Adulteration of food or drink intended for sale is punishable under
Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate, to record confessions and statements?
A solicitor sold certain property to one of his clients. The client subsequently alleged that the property was considerably overvalued and his consent was caused by .......... Court considered the relationship between the parties to reach the decision.
Raghav owes Murli Rs.10,000. This debt is time-barred by the Limitation Act. Even then Murli, promises in writing to pay Raghav Rs. 4,500 on account of debt and signs the document. This contract is
“The fundamental aim of Legal Ethics is to maintain the honour and dignity of the Legal Profession, to secure a spirit of friendly co- operation between the Bench and the Bar in the promotion of highest standards of justice, to establish honourable and fair dealings of the counsel with his client, opponent and witnesses; to establish a spirit of brotherhood in the Bar itself; and to secure that lawyers discharge their responsibilities to the community generally”. Whose statement is this?
Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with disqualification as to enrolment?
An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is a
Patent ambiguity in interpreting documents renders it.
Which provision under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 guarantees the right of workmen laid off to claim for compensation
Frost v. Knight is a leading case on-
Evidences to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts is called as-
Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in-
Rabindra Kumar Pal @ Dam Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under Section 30 of Evidence Act, 1872 is also well- known as-
A Charge-Sheet filed under Section 173 of Cr.P.C. is an example of-
As per the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the word ‘inspection’ used in Section 93(1) (c) refers to-
Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used during trial for-
Section 82 IPC is an illustration for-
The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section of the Evidence Act, 1872
Testimony of a witness to the existence or non-existence of the fact or facts in issue is/are
A statement made by an accused person before the trial begins, by which he admits to have committed the offence, but which he repudiates at the trial is known as __
Section 253 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with
In which case, where the advocate of one of the parties was asking for continuous adjournments to the immense inconvenience of the opposite party, it was held by the Supreme Court that seeking adjournments for postponing the examination of witnesses who were present without making other arrangements for examining such witnesses is a dereliction of the duty that an advocate owed to the Court, amounting to misconduct
A/An________is one which is drawn by one person and accepted by another, without consideration, merely to enable the drawer to raise money on the bill by discounting it.
Estoppel is a rule by which a party to litigation is/are_____
Under Section 122 of the Evidence Act, a communication made to the spouse during marriage
A retracted confession
A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of the Evidence Act:
An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness:
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
Secondary evidence of a document means:
A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness:
Any person in section 106 of Evidence Act, 1872 refers to-
Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae
In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been discussed by the Supreme Court in:
A reference can be made during the pendency:
What is the maximum number of witness which can be produced in a case?
Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor is a leading case on:
The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes:
Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of:
Who is prevented from being testified u/ s. 118 of Indian Evidence Act:
In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on:
Dying declaration must be made by:
The Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab is a leading case on:
A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall? 5
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrel- evant be considered relevant?
What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Sec- tion 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissibility of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context?
Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?
According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause?
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1:Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally rele- vant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person. Statement 2:An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness. In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?
Read the given Statements and choose the correct option. A dispute arises between two companies regarding the enforcement of their arbitration clause. Ex- amine the following statements: Statement 1:An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained in a contract, an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or elec- tronic communications.Statement 2:An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, without any written record.
The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agree- ment without consideration is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration ?
When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?
Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
Which of the following statements is incorrect as per The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 ?
As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, “intermediary”, with respect to any particular electronic records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that record or provides any service with re- spect to that record and includes : I. telecom service providers. 53 II. search engines. III. cyber cafes. IV. online-auction sites. Select the correct answer.
The Supreme Court of India in R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty of misconduct for :