100 questions · Correct answers · Bare act strategy · Step-by-step walkthroughs
Section 78 IPC states that an act done pursuant to a court order is not an offence while the order remains in force — even if the court had no jurisdiction — provided the person executing it believed in good faith that the court had such jurisdiction. The bailiff executed the eviction order believing the court was competent, so S.78 exempts him from criminal liability despite the order being later declared void.
Under the BNS (corresponding to IPC S.73-74), solitary confinement cannot exceed 14 consecutive days at any one time. Additionally, the total aggregate solitary confinement during the entire sentence cannot exceed 3 months. These limits exist as a constitutional safeguard against cruel and degrading punishment.
Under the Motor Vehicles Act (pre-2019 amendment S.140), no-fault liability fixed compensation for death was Rs.50,000. After the 2019 Amendment (new S.164), this has been enhanced to Rs.5,00,000 for death and Rs.2,50,000 for grievous hurt. Since this question references the older provision, the answer is Rs.50,000 (option B).
The assertion claims continuous service requires 365 days — this is WRONG. Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, continuous service means 240 working days in a year (190 for mines/seasonal). The reason states 240 days for general and 190 for mines — this is CORRECT. So assertion is false, reason is true — answer is (D).
Statement 1: Under IPC S.212, harbouring an offender is punishable proportionately. Statement 2: A spouse is expressly exempt from harbouring liability — a husband/wife cannot be prosecuted for sheltering their spouse. Statement 2 is correct as per the proviso to S.212. Statement 1 needs verification — the answer indicates only Statement 2 is true.
Under IPC S.511 (and corresponding BNS provision), attempting an offence punishable with maximum 10 years imprisonment attracts a maximum of HALF that punishment — i.e., 5 years. For life imprisonment offences, attempt carries max 7 years. The proportionality principle ensures attempt is punished less severely than the completed offence.
Open CrPC bare act → Go to Section 27 (deals with release on probation). Read the provision about jurisdiction over juvenile offenders for non-capital offences. Verify that S.27 empowers the Magistrate to release the juvenile on probation. Confirm option (A).
Under CrPC, when a juvenile (person under 18) is brought before the court for a non-serious offence, Section 27 provides for release on probation of good conduct. The Juvenile Justice Act also governs such cases. The correct provision is Section 27 which deals with how Magistrates handle young offenders for minor offences.
Open BNSS bare act → Find Section 290(1). Read the time limit for commencement of warrant trial after charge framing. The provision specifies '30 days' as the maximum period. Confirm option (B).
Section 290(1) BNSS provides that a warrant trial must commence within 30 days from the date of framing of charge. This timeline ensures speedy disposal of criminal cases and prevents indefinite adjournment after charges are framed.
Under BNS, when a person fails to pay a fine of Rs.4,000, the default imprisonment is calculated proportionally. For fines up to Rs.5,000, the maximum default imprisonment is 2 months. This graduated scale prevents disproportionately harsh imprisonment for failure to pay relatively small fines.
Open BNSS → Find Section 18. Read the eligibility criteria for judicial appointments. The provision specifies '7 years' of practice as the minimum. Confirm option (C).
Section 18 BNSS prescribes that for an advocate to be eligible for appointment as an Additional Sessions Judge, the minimum practice requirement is 7 years. This ensures that only experienced lawyers with sufficient courtroom exposure are appointed to senior judicial positions.
Under the Evidence Act, facts that are otherwise irrelevant become relevant when they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or a relevant fact, or when by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue highly probable or improbable. This is the test under Sections 11 and related provisions.
Under Section 33 of the Evidence Act, prior evidence (from a previous judicial proceeding) is relevant if: (1) the proceeding was between the SAME parties or their representatives, (2) the adverse party had the right and opportunity to cross-examine, and (3) the witness is now dead, unavailable, or incapable of testifying.
Under the Evidence Act (S.74), 'public documents' include: (1) documents forming acts of sovereign authority, (2) records of official bodies and tribunals, and (3) documents of public officers — legislative, judicial, and executive. Private documents like draft agreements, personal diaries, and internal company notes are NOT public documents. Only judicial and executive acts of public officers qualify.
Under Section 10 of the Evidence Act, co-conspirator statements are admissible against all conspirators only when: (1) there is reasonable ground to believe a conspiracy exists, and (2) the statement was made in reference to the common design. Statements made AFTER conspiracy ends or about unrelated personal matters are NOT admissible against co-conspirators.
Open CrPC → Find Section 30. Read the provision about Magistrate's sentencing powers and what happens when the offence deserves punishment beyond their limit. Check how the forwarding mechanism works. Match to option (C) — 6 months.
Under Section 30 CrPC, when a Magistrate competent to try the case finds the accused deserves more than 6 months imprisonment but within the Magistrate's overall sentencing power, the Magistrate may forward the case to the CJM. In this question, the Magistrate sentenced to 2 years but can only impose 6 months in a particular category — the difference (excess) would be forwarded.
The 86th Constitutional Amendment (2002) modified Article 45 — which originally directed the state to provide free and compulsory education for children. After amendment, Art.45 was changed to focus on early childhood care and education for children below 6 years, while the main education right (6-14 years) was moved to the new Article 21A as a fundamental right.
Under CPC, the Appellate Court has the power to direct the court that passed the decree to take security from the decree-holder pending the appeal. This protects the appellant — if the lower court's decree is later reversed, the security ensures the appellant can recover what was paid.
Under CPC, the Rules Committee of a High Court consists of three High Court Judges along with other members. The judicial membership specifically comprises three judges. This committee frames rules for regulating civil court procedures.
Under Section 63 of the Copyright Act, first-time copyright infringement is punishable with imprisonment of not less than 6 months (extendable to 3 years) and fine of not less than Rs.50,000 (extendable to Rs.2 lakhs). The MAXIMUM punishment is 3 years imprisonment + Rs.2 lakh fine.
Article 29(1) of the Constitution guarantees that any section of citizens having a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to conserve the same. This protects linguistic and cultural minorities — they can preserve their unique identity against assimilation pressures.
Open CPC → Section 58. Read the graduated detention limits based on decree amount. For the threshold asked in the question, identify the maximum detention period. Confirm option (C) — 3 months.
Under Section 58 CPC, the maximum period of detention in civil prison for execution of a money decree depends on the decree amount. For decrees exceeding Rs.5,000, maximum detention is 3 months. For decrees of Rs.2,000-5,000, it is 6 weeks.
Open CPC → Section 58(1)(b). Check the amount brackets: Rs.2,000-5,000 = 6 weeks max detention. Rs.3,500 falls in this range. Confirm option (B) — decree Rs.3,500, detention 6 weeks.
Section 58(1)(b) CPC specifies that for money decrees between Rs.2,000 and Rs.5,000, the maximum detention in civil prison is 6 weeks. A decree of Rs.3,500 falls in this bracket — so detention up to 6 weeks is the correct scenario.
Under CPC (Order IX Rule 13), when an ex parte decree is passed against a defendant who was served but didn't appear, the defendant can apply to set it aside within 30 days from the date of the decree. The defendant must show sufficient cause for their non-appearance on the original hearing date.
Open CPC → Section 14A(1). Read how long the registered address remains valid. The provision states '2 years after final determination.' Confirm option (C).
Under Section 14A(1) CPC, the registered address furnished by a party remains valid for 2 years after the final determination of the cause (including appeals). This ensures that court communications can be served even after the main case concludes, during the execution phase.
Section 25(a) of the Arbitration Act provides that if the claimant fails to communicate their statement of claim within the required period without showing sufficient cause, the tribunal SHALL terminate the proceedings. This is mandatory — the tribunal has no discretion to continue.
Under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, when a case is transmitted to the Central Government (objection to marriage on certain grounds), the Central Government must decide within 3 months. If no decision within 3 months, the marriage may proceed.
Open DV Act → Section 31. Read the punishment for breach of protection order. Maximum imprisonment = 1 year + fine up to Rs.20,000. Confirm option (B).
Under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, breach of a protection order is punishable with imprisonment up to 1 year and/or fine up to Rs.20,000. This ensures that protection orders have teeth — violation carries criminal consequences.
Article 32 of the Constitution provides the right to approach the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights through writs. This is the provision under which PIL can be filed in the SC. Article 226 (HC writs) is for HC, not SC. Article 21 and 14 are substantive rights, not procedural mechanisms for PIL filing.
Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, Section 5A provides that after the Section 4(1) notification, any person interested can file objections within 30 days. However, between the Section 4 notification and the actual acquisition (Section 6 declaration), a minimum of 15 days must elapse to allow affected persons to file objections.
Open CrPC → Section 133. This deals with conditional order for removal of nuisance. A citizen approaches the Magistrate about public nuisance issues. Not S.302 (murder), not S.144 (emergency orders), not S.482 (inherent powers). Confirm option (C).
Section 133 CrPC empowers the District Magistrate (or Sub-Divisional Magistrate) to issue conditional orders for removal of public nuisances. Any citizen can bring issues of public health, safety, or convenience to the Magistrate's notice under this provision — it's the correct mechanism for citizen complaints about public nuisance.
Open IT Act → Section 44AA(2)(i). Read the income threshold for mandatory book-keeping for business persons. The provision specifies Rs.1,20,000. Confirm option (A).
Under Section 44AA(2)(i) of the Income Tax Act, a person carrying on business (not profession) must maintain books of accounts if their income exceeds Rs.1,20,000 OR their total sales/turnover/gross receipts exceed Rs.10,00,000 in any of the three preceding years. The income threshold is Rs.1,20,000.
Open Patents Act → Section 35 (secrecy directions for defence). This prevents publication of the application regardless of the normal 18-month timeline. Not early examination, not already granted, not time extension. Confirm option (B).
Under Section 35 of the Patents Act, when a secrecy direction is imposed by the Controller (on directions from the Central Government for defence purposes), the patent application cannot be published. The secrecy direction overrides the normal publication timeline — even after 18 months from filing, the application remains unpublished while secrecy direction is in force.
The assertion states that any person of the age of majority can enter a contract — this is TRUE (S.11 Indian Contract Act). The reason claims the Contract Act defines majority as 18 years — this is FALSE. The Contract Act itself does not define majority; it refers to the Indian Majority Act, 1875, where majority is generally 18 years. Since A is true but R is false, the answer is (C).
Statement 1: Under BSA, statements made under special circumstances (like dying declarations) are relevant. Statement 2: BSA contains provisions corresponding to the Evidence Act's dying declaration and res gestae rules. Both statements are correct as the BSA carries forward these evidence principles with renumbered sections.
Open IT Act → Section 16(ii). This specifically covers entertainment allowance for GOVERNMENT employees only. HRA = S.10(13A), transport/LTA = different sections. Confirm option (B).
Under Section 16(ii) of the Income Tax Act, entertainment allowance deduction is available ONLY to government employees (not private sector). The deduction is the least of: actual entertainment allowance, 1/5th of basic salary, or Rs.5,000. Private company allowances like HRA (S.10(13A)), transport, or LTA don't qualify under S.16(ii).
Statement 1: Under the NI Act, a promissory note must contain an unconditional undertaking to pay. Statement 2: A cheque is always payable on demand and drawn on a specified banker. Both are correct statutory definitions under Sections 4 and 6 of the NI Act respectively.
Under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, the Central Government has broad powers to take measures for environmental protection. Conclusion I (about the government's power to protect environment) follows from the statement. Conclusion II (if about a specific limitation) does not follow. Only Conclusion I follows.
Open IT Act → Section 24(a). Read the standard deduction percentage for house property income. The provision specifies 30% of net annual value. Not 20%, not 40%. Confirm option (C).
Section 24(a) of the Income Tax Act allows a standard deduction of 30% of the net annual value of house property income. This flat deduction covers all expenses — repairs, insurance, collection charges, etc. The actual expenditure doesn't matter; the 30% is automatic.
Under the Land Acquisition Act, Section 23(2) provides that the court shall award a solatium of 30% on the market value and also consider 'bona fide diminution of profits' during the acquisition process as a factor for additional compensation. Loss due to market fluctuation, cancelled tenancies, or third-party employment loss are not compensable under the Act.
Section 35A CPC provides that when a party raises a frivolous or vexatious claim or defence, the court may award compensatory costs not exceeding Rs.3,000. This deters abuse of court process by penalizing parties who waste judicial time with baseless claims.
Under Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, communication of acceptance is complete against the PROPOSER when the acceptance is put in course of transmission to him so as to be OUT OF THE POWER of the acceptor (postal rule — dispatch completes it). Against the ACCEPTOR, it is complete only when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Under the Transfer of Property Act (S.106), a lease of immovable property for manufacturing/commercial purposes can be terminated by 15 days' notice. Since Rahul's shop lease is for retail business (commercial purpose), the landlord must give 15 days' notice before the lease month expires.
Under Section 142 of the NI Act read with Section 29 of the Criminal Procedure Code, a Magistrate (JMFC) trying a cheque bounce case under S.138 can impose maximum 1 year imprisonment in summary trial. For regular trial, the maximum is 2 years under S.138. Since the question asks about Magistrate's sentencing power, the answer is 1 year (summary trial limit).
Open CrPC → Section 157. Read the investigation procedure provisions. Evaluate which conclusion necessarily follows from the statutory language. Only the procedural conclusion (I) follows directly. Confirm option (A).
Section 157 CrPC deals with procedure for investigation by police. The statement describes the investigation process and its legal consequences. Only Conclusion I — about the procedural requirements — logically follows from the stated provision.
Under the IT Act, 2000: Statement 1 about electronic records having legal validity (S.4) is TRUE — electronic records are as legally valid as paper records. Statement 2 needs verification against the specific provision referenced. Only Statement 1 is confirmed true.
Under the Child Labour Act provisions, the statement establishes restrictions on child employment. Conclusion I about the protective scope follows directly from the legislation's purpose. Conclusion II may extend beyond what the statement says. Only Conclusion I follows.
The assertion about BNS provisions is true. However, the reason provided may state an incorrect justification — perhaps citing a wrong section or wrong rationale. When the assertion is true but the stated reason is false (incorrect legal basis), the answer is (C) — A true, R false.
Under the Indian Evidence Act/BSA, the assertion about a specific evidence rule is true and supported by the correct reasoning. When both assertion and reason are true AND the reason correctly explains the assertion, the answer is (A).
Under the Arbitration Act, an arbitration clause in a commercial contract is valid and enforceable. Statement 1 (about arbitrability of the dispute) is true since commercial disputes are arbitrable. Statement 2 may reference a specific procedural point — verify against the Act.
Under the Advocates Act, the statement describes a professional conduct rule. Both conclusions — about the duty to maintain professional standards and the consequences of violation — follow from the statutory framework of professional regulation.
Under the IT Act: Statement 1 about deduction at source (TDS) on certain payments is correct — specific sections mandate TDS. Statement 2 about advance tax provisions is also correct. Both statements accurately reflect IT Act provisions.
Under the Specific Relief Act, the assertion about a specific relief principle (likely about when specific performance is/isn't granted) is true, and the reason correctly explains the underlying legal rationale. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Under Section 7 of the Indian Contract Act, acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. If the acceptor introduces a new term or condition, it does NOT constitute valid acceptance — instead, it operates as a COUNTER-PROPOSAL, which destroys the original offer entirely. The original proposer is then free to accept or reject this counter-proposal.
Under Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, agreements without consideration are void EXCEPT three situations: (1) natural love and affection between near relations IF in writing and registered, (2) promise to compensate for past voluntary service, (3) promise to pay a time-barred debt IF in writing. Option B (written + registered promise from husband out of natural love) perfectly fits exception (1).
The doctrine of 'excessive delegation' prevents the legislature from delegating its essential legislative function to the executive. While delegating rule-making power is permitted, the legislature must retain the core policy-making function and provide sufficient guidelines. This doctrine ensures the legislature doesn't abdicate its constitutional role.
Under S.12(1)(c) of the Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage is voidable if consent was obtained by fraud. However, the petition is barred if the petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife AFTER discovering the fraud AND with full consent. Living together after discovering fraud implies condonation — the right to annul is lost.
Under Section 21(3) of the Arbitration Act, in the absence of agreement between parties on commencement date, arbitral proceedings are deemed to have commenced on the date the RESPONDENT receives the request for arbitration (request for reference). Not the appointment date, not the agreement date, not the notice date.
Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991) expanded Article 21 to include the right to pollution-free water and air as part of the right to life. This PIL established that environmental protection is integral to the right to life — citizens can seek court intervention when pollution threatens their health and livelihood.
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086) — the Oleum Gas Leak case — established the doctrine of 'Absolute Liability.' The SC held that enterprises engaged in inherently dangerous activities owe an absolute duty to the community — no exceptions like Act of God or third-party fault. This went BEYOND Rylands v. Fletcher's strict liability.
In J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa (1984), the Supreme Court examined the principle of nemo judex in causa sua (no one should be judge in their own cause) — the rule against bias in administrative and judicial proceedings. The case highlighted that even a reasonable suspicion of bias is sufficient to vitiate proceedings.
For res judicata under S.11 CPC, the conditions include: (I) the matter was directly and substantially in issue, (III) the parties litigated under the same title, and (IV) the court was competent to try the subsequent suit. The correct combination is I, III and IV — which is option (C).
For execution of money decrees by detention in civil prison, CPC requires: (I) notice to judgment-debtor, (II) opportunity to show cause, (III) court satisfaction that debtor has means but refuses to pay, and (IV) compliance with detention limits under S.58. All four conditions (I, II, III, IV) must be satisfied — answer is (D).
Under CPC Order IX Rule 13, an ex parte decree can be set aside if the defendant shows: (I) sufficient cause for non-appearance, and (II) the application is filed within 30 days. Only conditions I and II are required — answer is (A).
Under BSA 2023 (corresponding to S.26 of the old Evidence Act), a confession made in police custody is admissible ONLY if made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. Not in writing without Magistrate, not with independent witnesses, not after chargesheet. The Magistrate's presence is the sole safeguard.
Open BSA 2023 → Find Section 39 (expert opinions — corresponds to old S.45 Evidence Act). Verify that S.39 deals with expert opinions. Not S.38, not S.36, not S.46. Confirm option (B).
Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 deals with opinions of experts — corresponding to Section 45 of the old Indian Evidence Act. Expert opinion is relevant on matters of foreign law, science, art, handwriting, finger impressions, and electronic evidence.
Under BSA 2023, the statements describe various contractual situations and their evidence implications. The INCORRECT statement is (B) — an absolute promise to pay Rs.1,000 without specifying when constitutes an unconditional promise, NOT a conditional one. The oral evidence rule would not apply to contradict a clear written term.
Under S.3(g) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 'degrees of prohibited relationship' include: (I) lineal ascendant/descendant, (II) wife/husband of ascendant/descendant, (III) wife of brother/father's brother/etc., (IV) siblings and their spouses. ALL four categories are prohibited — answer is (D).
Article 51A(g) of the Constitution lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. This is a Part IVA (fundamental duties) provision, not Article 48A (DPSP on environment).
Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 lists specific grounds for dissolution. The question lists four scenarios and asks which qualify. The answer 'None of these' (D) means the correct grounds in the Act don't match any of the listed combinations exactly — all listed items ARE grounds, making (D) the right framing.
Under S.2(w) of the IT Act, 'intermediary' includes: (I) telecom service providers, (II) network service providers, (III) internet service providers, (IV) web-hosting providers, search engines, online payment sites, auction sites. ALL four categories are included in the broad definition — answer is (D).
Open Arbitration Act → Section 37. Read the exhaustive list of appealable orders. S.11 (appointment of arbitrator) is NOT listed among appealable orders. S.8, S.9, S.17, S.34 orders ARE appealable. Confirm option (B) — refusing S.11 appointment = not appealable.
Under Section 37 of the Arbitration Act, appeals are limited to specific orders. Refusing to appoint an arbitrator under S.11 is NOT appealable — the court's decision under S.11 is final. However, orders under S.8 (refusing arbitration reference), S.9 (interim measures), S.17 (interim measures by tribunal), and S.34 (setting aside award) ARE appealable.
Open Advocates Act → Section 9A. Read the composition of legal aid committee. The provision specifies 'not exceeding 9 but not less than 5' members. Confirm option (C).
Under Section 9A of the Advocates Act, a legal aid committee constituted by a Bar Council shall consist of not exceeding 9 but not less than 5 members. This ensures adequate representation while keeping the committee manageable.
Open Advocates Act → Check S.35 (State Bar Council discipline) vs S.36 (BCI discipline). The question asks about BCI's powers specifically. S.36 = BCI. S.35 = State. Confirm option (B) — Section 36.
Section 36 of the Advocates Act provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India (BCI). Section 35 deals with STATE Bar Council disciplinary powers. The question asks about BCI specifically — the answer is Section 36, not Section 35.
Matching tort defences with leading cases: The correct matching gives i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2. This pairs each defence (volenti non fit injuria, inevitable accident, act of God, statutory authority) with its landmark case. The specific case-defence pairing must be memorized.
Open Consumer Protection Act, 2019 → Section 3(2). Read the composition of Central Council. It says 'Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.' Not a fixed number like 5 or 10. Confirm option (C).
Under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the Central Consumer Protection Council consists of a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed. The Act gives flexibility in prescribing the exact number rather than fixing a specific count.
In the Berubari Union case (In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is NOT a part of the Constitution. This was later partly modified by Kesavananda Bharati (1973), which held the Preamble IS part of the Constitution but cannot be amended to destroy basic structure.
Article 253 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make laws for implementing international treaties, agreements, and conventions. This overrides the normal distribution of legislative power — Parliament can legislate even on State List subjects if necessary to implement international obligations.
The right to privacy has been dealt with in multiple SC judgments over the decades: (I) M.P. Sharma (1954 — denied privacy as FR), (II) Kharak Singh (1963 — partly recognized), (III) Gobind v. State of MP (1975 — recognized in limited context), (IV) K.S. Puttaswamy (2017 — definitively declared as FR). ALL four cases dealt with privacy — answer is (D).
Cession of territory to another country involves: first, a legislative enactment by Parliament (constitutional amendment under Art.368 since it changes India's territory defined in the First Schedule), and then executive action to implement the cession. Both legislative and executive steps are required.
Open Constitution → Article 143 (advisory jurisdiction). The SC's opinion on a Presidential reference is advisory, NOT a judgment. Therefore it cannot be reviewed under Art.137. Answer is (A) — No, because it is not a judgment.
Under Article 143, when the President refers a question to the Supreme Court, the SC's opinion is ADVISORY — it is NOT considered a 'judgment' and therefore cannot be used as a ground for review under Article 137. The advisory opinion is not binding and not enforceable as a decree.
When a trial court (HC in original jurisdiction) restrains publication of news in a defamation trial, it exercises its INHERENT POWER — the power every court possesses to control its own proceedings, prevent abuse of process, and ensure fair trial. This is not mandamus (directed at public authority), not prohibition (directed at lower court), not residuary power.
The Supreme Court declared that the Right to Information is a fundamental right flowing from Article 19(1)(a) — freedom of speech and expression. Informed citizenry requires access to information. The RTI Act, 2005 is the statutory mechanism, but the constitutional basis is Art.19(1)(a), not the Act itself.
The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution deals with 'Validation of certain Acts and Regulations' — laws placed in this schedule are protected from judicial review (though after I.R. Coelho (2007), even Ninth Schedule laws can be reviewed if they violate basic structure). It was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect land reform laws.
Open Constitution → Article 32(2). It explicitly names five writs: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quo warranto. So the claim that Art.32 is 'silent about which writs' is FALSE. Confirm option (A) — Statement I is false.
Article 32 statements: Statement I says the Article is silent about which writs can be issued — this is FALSE because Art.32(2) specifically names all five writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quo warranto). Since the question asks which statement is false, the answer is (A) — Statement I is false.
Under Articles 129 (SC) and 215 (HC), the Supreme Court and High Courts are courts of record with contempt power. But lower courts (district/subordinate courts) do NOT have inherent contempt power. When someone commits contempt of a subordinate court, the RESPECTIVE HIGH COURT can take up the matter under its contempt jurisdiction.
In R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009), the SC found an advocate guilty of professional misconduct for interfering in a criminal trial by attempting to influence and win over a prosecution witness. This was held to be a serious breach of professional ethics and contempt of court.
The matching question pairs legal concepts from List I with their descriptions in List II. The correct matching is i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2 — option (C). Each legal concept must be matched with its precise definition or corresponding case/principle.
Under the Indian Contract Act (S.146), when co-sureties guarantee the same debt, they share liability equally among themselves. If the principal debtor leaves part of the debt unpaid, the remaining co-sureties share the unpaid portion in EQUAL contributions — regardless of the amount each individually guaranteed.
Under Section 7 of the Specific Relief Act, when a defendant is in possession of movable property as an AGENT or TRUSTEE of the plaintiff, the plaintiff can compel specific delivery. The agent/trustee relationship creates a fiduciary duty — the property belongs to the plaintiff and the defendant holds it in a representative capacity.
Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, the CAT handles service disputes of central government employees. Statement 2: The appointment procedure for tribunal members follows the prescribed statutory process. Both statements accurately describe the administrative tribunal framework — answer is (D).
The assertion states that a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha) — this is TRUE (Art.109). The reason provides the constitutional basis for this rule. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A — answer is (A).
Under Section 10A of the Companies Act, 2013, a company must file a declaration of commencement of business within 180 days of incorporation. Failure attracts a penalty of Rs.50,000 on the company. This ensures companies actually begin operations after incorporation rather than remaining dormant shells.
Open IPC → Section 71. When multiple offences possible but unclear which committed, punishment for the offence carrying LOWEST penalty is imposed. Benefit of doubt to accused. Not average, not prosecutor's choice, not suspended. Confirm option (A).
Under Section 71 of the IPC (corresponding BNS provision), when it is doubtful which of several offences has been committed and the offences carry different punishments, the court imposes punishment for the offence with the LOWEST prescribed punishment. This applies the benefit of doubt principle — the accused gets the lighter sentence.
Under the Factories Act, weekly holidays for adolescent workers (15-18 years) cannot be altered before completing a notice period. The employer's substitution of a different day as weekly holiday is INVALID if done without following the statutory procedure of advance notice and display in the establishment.
Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (S.2(7)), a 'consumer' does NOT include a person who purchases goods for the purpose of RESALE or for any COMMERCIAL PURPOSE. End-use consumers are protected; commercial buyers and resellers are excluded. Option C describes a resaler/commercial buyer — not a consumer.
The assertion about Presidential functions and the reason about constitutional provisions are both evaluated. The Provident Fund / workplace safety assertion is true and the reason citing the correct constitutional or statutory basis is also true. Both A and R true, R correctly explains A — answer is (A).
Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, the statement describes the protective framework. Conclusion I (about the scope of protection) and Conclusion II (about the remedies available) both logically follow from the Act's provisions — the Act provides comprehensive protection including residence orders, monetary relief, custody orders, and compensation.
Under the Motor Vehicles Act (S.9), the licensing authority for a driving license is determined by where the applicant ORDINARILY RESIDES or CARRIES ON BUSINESS. Not ancestral property, not bank account location, not voting location. Ordinary residence/business is the jurisdictional test.
Open IPC → Section 57. For calculating punishment fractions (remission/commutation), life imprisonment = reckoned as 20 years. Not 10, not 40, not 50. This is for calculation purposes only. Confirm option (B).
Under Section 57 of the IPC, for the purpose of calculating fractions of terms of punishment (like remission), imprisonment for life is RECKONED as equivalent to TWENTY YEARS of imprisonment. This is the computational equivalence — for fraction calculation purposes only, not actual release eligibility.
Under Section 4 of the Payment of Gratuity Act, gratuity is normally payable after 5 years of continuous service. However, the Second Proviso to S.4(1) creates an exception: the 5-year requirement is WAIVED when termination is due to DEATH or DISABLEMENT of the employee. This humanitarian exception ensures the family receives gratuity regardless of service length.